A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication orally.
- B. Massage the injection site after administration.
- C. Insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting the medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously at a 45- to 90-degree angle. This angle ensures proper delivery of the medication. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising and possible tissue damage. Aspiration is not required for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Therefore, the correct action for administering Enoxaparin is to insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following most accurately describes the antibacterial mechanism of penicillin:
- A. inhibits DNA synthesis
- B. inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis
- C. Inhibits protein synthesis in growing bacterial cells
- D. disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis. Peptidoglycan is a critical component of the bacterial cell wall, providing structural support and preventing the cell from bursting. Penicillin specifically targets the final step in peptidoglycan synthesis, known as cross-linking, by binding to and inhibiting the enzyme transpeptidase. Without proper cross-linking of peptidoglycan, the bacterial cell wall becomes weak and compromised, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. This mechanism makes penicillin highly effective in combating bacterial infections.
A 56-year-old man with chronic pain injects himself with morphine, which he obtained from a friend who is an emergency department nurse. He is found dead in his apartment by the police. What is the most likely cause of death?
- A. Congestive heart failure
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?
- A. Glucose
- B. Ammonia
- C. Potassium
- D. Bicarbonate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.
To which pharmacologic classification does the drug propranolol belong?
- A. Beta Blockers
- B. Cholinergics
- C. Immune globulins
- D. Barbiturates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones on beta-adrenergic receptors. They are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, angina, and arrhythmias. Choice B, Cholinergics, is incorrect because cholinergics work by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system, unlike beta blockers that block adrenergic receptors. Choice C, Immune globulins, is incorrect as it refers to antibodies used to boost the immune system, not the mechanism of action of propranolol. Choice D, Barbiturates, is incorrect as barbiturates are a different class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, primarily used as sedatives and anesthetics.
What is the antidote for Warfarin?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Glucagon
- D. Vitamin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.