A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. BUN of 18 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications.
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The nursing instructor teaches student nurses about male reproductive function and the role of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). The instructor evaluates learning has occurred when the students make which statement?
- A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) regulates sperm production
- B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) regulates male androgen production
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) regulates production of testosterone
- D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) regulates male progesterone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), secreted by the pituitary gland, targets Sertoli cells in the testes to stimulate spermatogenesis, the process of sperm production, making it a key regulator of male fertility. Androgen production, primarily testosterone, is governed by luteinizing hormone (LH), not FSH, though both hormones collaborate in reproductive function. Testosterone synthesis occurs in Leydig cells under LH's influence, not FSH, which focuses on supporting sperm maturation rather than hormone production. Progesterone, while present in trace amounts in males, isn't regulated by FSH, as it's more relevant to female reproductive cycles. The specificity of FSH's role in spermatogenesis distinguishes it from broader hormonal regulation, ensuring students grasp its targeted action in the seminiferous tubules, critical for understanding male reproductive physiology and distinguishing it from LH's testosterone-driven effects.
A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Weigh yourself daily.
- C. Take potassium supplements as needed.
- D. Decrease intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
The following is most suitable for thromboembolic prophylaxis in a patient with a left ventricular aneurysm following a myocardial infarction three months ago:
- A. Intravenous heparin
- B. Subcutaneous enoxaparin
- C. Oral warfarin
- D. Oral aspirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A left ventricular aneurysm post-MI risks thrombus formation due to stasis, necessitating anticoagulation. IV heparin is acute, not outpatient prophylaxis, impractical here. Subcutaneous enoxaparin prevents thromboembolism short-term (e.g., post-surgery), but its duration suits weeks, not months. Oral warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist, provides long-term anticoagulation (INR 2-3), ideal for chronic prophylaxis against mural thrombi embolizing to systemic circulation, most suitable three months post-MI. Oral aspirin (antiplatelet) or aspirin plus clopidogrel targets arterial clots, less effective for ventricular stasis-related venous thrombi. Warfarin's sustained effect reduces stroke risk, critical in this structural heart defect.
A client with asthma has a new prescription for inhaled beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Check the pulse after using the inhaler.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler.
- D. Reduce caffeine consumption.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for a long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Weight Gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.