A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
- A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
- B. Obtain a daily weight.
- C. Continuous fetal monitoring
- D. Ambulate twice daily
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating a client with severe preeclampsia can be risky due to the potential for sudden worsening of symptoms and complications like seizures. It is important to prioritize rest and close monitoring in such cases. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour (A) is crucial as changes can indicate neurological involvement. Obtaining a daily weight (B) helps monitor fluid status. Continuous fetal monitoring (C) is necessary to assess the well-being of the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. In summary, ambulating the client with severe preeclampsia is the most concerning order as it may pose a significant risk to both the client and the fetus.
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A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
- A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
- B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
- C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
- D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the arms due to the pressure build-up before the narrowing and decreased blood pressure in the legs due to reduced blood flow beyond the narrowing. This pressure difference is a classic clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiology of coarctation of the aorta. B is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in the arms is not typical. C is incorrect as increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs does not reflect the characteristic pressure difference caused by the aortic narrowing. D is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not consistent with the presentation of coarctation of the aorta.
A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding, with a tentative diagnosis of inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Offer the option to view products of conception.
- C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer the option to view products of conception. This intervention allows the client to have closure and process the loss. It can also provide emotional support and facilitate the grieving process. Option A is not necessary unless the client is hypoxic. Option C is not relevant to the immediate management of an inevitable abortion. Option D may be advised for some clients, but it is not as crucial as offering emotional support and closure to the client in this situation.
During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
- A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
- B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
- C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
- D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interpretation of 0 station is that the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines. This indicates the descent of the fetus into the birth canal. At 0 station, the presenting part has not yet passed through the pelvic outlet, ruling out choice B. Choices A and C are incorrect as they refer to different aspects of fetal positioning and fontanel palpation, not specifically related to station. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the position of the fetus in the birth canal.
A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
- B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
- C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
- D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because the client's low blood pressure may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which is a common complication after childbirth. Assessing the firmness of the uterus helps determine if there is uterine atony, a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By addressing uterine atony promptly, the nurse can prevent further blood loss and stabilize the client's condition.
Summary:
- Option B, initiating oxygen therapy, is not the first priority as the client's low blood pressure is likely due to hemorrhage rather than hypoxemia.
- Option C, administering oxytocin infusion, may be necessary to address uterine atony but should only be done after assessing the firmness of the uterus.
- Option D, obtaining a type and crossmatch, is important for potential blood transfusion but is not the immediate priority compared to assessing for uterine atony.
A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?
- A. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility
- B. Absence of vitamin K
- C. Physiologic jaundice
- D. Maternal cocaine abuse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is A:
1. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility can result in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
2. Hemolytic disease causes an increase in bilirubin levels, leading to jaundice.
3. Jaundice in this case is due to the breakdown of red blood cells and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.
4. Physiologic jaundice is a normal process in newborns and usually appears after the first 24 hours of life.
5. Absence of vitamin K would not directly cause jaundice.
6. Maternal cocaine abuse is not typically associated with neonatal jaundice.
In summary, the correct answer is A because maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility can lead to hemolytic disease and subsequent jaundice, while the other choices are not directly related to neonatal jaundice.