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A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client who is having a difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Which of the following contributing causes should the nurse identify?
- A. Fetal attitude is in general flexion.
- B. Fetal lie is longitudinal.
- C. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid.
- D. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior. This position, where the baby's head is facing the mother's abdomen instead of her back, can lead to severe backache and difficulty during labor due to increased pressure on the mother's spine. This malposition can impede the progress of labor and cause prolonged labor.
Explanation of incorrect choices:
A: Fetal attitude in general flexion is a normal position and not typically associated with severe backache.
B: Fetal lie being longitudinal refers to the baby's position in relation to the mother's spine and is not directly related to backache.
C: Maternal pelvis being gynecoid is a favorable shape for childbirth and is unlikely to cause severe backache during labor.
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During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
- A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
- B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
- C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
- D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interpretation of 0 station is that the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines. This indicates the descent of the fetus into the birth canal. At 0 station, the presenting part has not yet passed through the pelvic outlet, ruling out choice B. Choices A and C are incorrect as they refer to different aspects of fetal positioning and fontanel palpation, not specifically related to station. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the position of the fetus in the birth canal.
During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?
- A. Vertex
- B. Shoulder
- C. Breech
- D. Mentum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a Leopold maneuver, if the healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position, it means the fetal back is on the right side, and the small parts are on the left side, indicating a breech presentation. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Breech. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Vertex refers to the head-first position.
B: Shoulder presentation would involve feeling the shoulder first during the maneuver.
D: Mentum presentation would involve feeling the chin first, which is not the case in an RSA position.
A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?
- A. These exercises facilitate preventing constipation.
- B. These exercises aid pelvic muscle stretching during birth.
- C. They assist in decreasing backaches.
- D. They can prevent additional stretch marks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Kegel exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can aid in pelvic muscle stretching during birth. This can potentially reduce the risk of pelvic floor dysfunction postpartum.
A is incorrect because Kegel exercises do not directly prevent constipation.
C is incorrect because while Kegel exercises may indirectly help with backaches by improving pelvic floor muscle support, they are not specifically targeted for backache relief.
D is incorrect as Kegel exercises do not prevent stretch marks, as stretch marks are related to skin elasticity rather than muscle tone.
A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding, with a tentative diagnosis of inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Offer the option to view products of conception.
- C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer the option to view products of conception. This intervention allows the client to have closure and process the loss. It can also provide emotional support and facilitate the grieving process. Option A is not necessary unless the client is hypoxic. Option C is not relevant to the immediate management of an inevitable abortion. Option D may be advised for some clients, but it is not as crucial as offering emotional support and closure to the client in this situation.
A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
- B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
- C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
- D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to evaluate the firmness of the uterus. This is because the client's low blood pressure may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which is a common complication after childbirth. Assessing the firmness of the uterus helps determine if there is uterine atony, a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By addressing uterine atony promptly, the nurse can prevent further blood loss and stabilize the client's condition.
Summary:
- Option B, initiating oxygen therapy, is not the first priority as the client's low blood pressure is likely due to hemorrhage rather than hypoxemia.
- Option C, administering oxytocin infusion, may be necessary to address uterine atony but should only be done after assessing the firmness of the uterus.
- Option D, obtaining a type and crossmatch, is important for potential blood transfusion but is not the immediate priority compared to assessing for uterine atony.