Nokea
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm³. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Encourage high-protein foods.
- B. Institute neutropenic precautions.
- C. Limit visitors to healthy adults.
- D. Place the client on safety precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, increasing the risk of bleeding. Placing the client on safety precautions will minimize the risk of injury and bleeding. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Neutropenic precautions (choice B) are for clients with low neutrophil counts, not low platelet counts. Limiting visitors to healthy adults (choice C) is important for infection control, not addressing the risk of bleeding.
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Mr XY was found to be anemic. During history taking, he informed his doctor that he was a strict vegetarian who did not consume any meat, fish or milk products.
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- C. Defects in erythropoietin production
- D. Calcium-deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin B12 deficiency. As a strict vegetarian who does not consume any meat, fish, or milk products, Mr XY is at risk for Vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal products and is essential for red blood cell production. Anemia can result from Vitamin B12 deficiency, leading to symptoms such as fatigue and weakness. Iron deficiency (A) is also common in vegetarians, but in this case, the focus is on Vitamin B12 due to the exclusion of all animal products. Defects in erythropoietin production (C) are not related to Mr XY's dietary choices. Calcium-deficiency (D) is not directly related to anemia in this scenario.
A 13-year-old Hispanic girl is found to have a WBC count of 6,500/mm3 with 40% Auer rod–containing granular blasts that, by flow cytometry, express very bright CD33 but are negative for human leukocyte antigen–DR isotype (HLA-DR). She is oozing blood around her peripheral IV site. Coagulation studies reveal an international normalized ratio (INR) of 3.4, a fibrinogen of 170, and a markedly elevated D-dimer. Marrow aspirate shows nearly 90% blasts with a similar morphology. You send the marrow to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) lab and request STAT testing for the most likely recurrent genetic abnormality based on the clinical presentation. How do you plan to initiate therapy?
- A. Perform a lumbar puncture to determine leukemic involvement, then proceed with induction chemotherapy.
- B. Begin therapy with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support.
- C. Start dexamethasone and hydroxyurea immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support.
- D. Start induction chemotherapy, obtain HLA typing, and start a donor search because of the poor prognosis associated with this leukemic phenotype.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Begin therapy with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support.
Rationale:
1. The clinical presentation describes acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), characterized by Auer rod-containing blasts, coagulopathy (elevated INR, D-dimer), and CD33 positivity. ATRA is the standard treatment for APL.
2. ATRA induces differentiation of leukemic promyelocytes, reducing the risk of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and bleeding.
3. Aggressively managing the coagulopathy with blood product support is crucial to prevent hemorrhagic complications.
Summary:
A: Not needed as the clinical presentation already suggests APL. Lumbar puncture is not indicated for APL diagnosis.
C: Dexamethasone and hydroxyurea are not standard treatments for APL. Immediate ATRA therapy is preferred.
D
The nurse is staying with a patient who has been started on a blood transfusion. Which assessment should the nurse perform during a blood product infusion to detect a reaction?
- A. Vital signs
- B. Skin turgor
- C. Bowel sounds
- D. Pupil reactivity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vital signs. During a blood transfusion, the nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs regularly to detect any signs of a transfusion reaction, such as fever, chills, rash, or hypotension. Vital signs provide crucial information about the patient's overall condition and can help the nurse identify and respond promptly to any adverse reactions. Skin turgor (B), bowel sounds (C), and pupil reactivity (D) are not directly related to monitoring for transfusion reactions and are not sensitive indicators of an adverse reaction during a blood transfusion. Monitoring vital signs is essential for patient safety and early detection of any complications during the transfusion process.
A 40 year old patient is presented with unilateral palpebral edema and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy. He later develops megaesophagus and megacolon as complications. Which of the following vector is responsible for this parasitic infection?
- A. Glossina morsitans
- B. Ixodes scapularis
- C. Rhodnius prolixus
- D. Simulium damnosum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhodnius prolixus. This parasite is responsible for causing Chagas disease. The initial symptoms of unilateral palpebral edema and ipsilateral lymphadenopathy are characteristic of the acute phase of Chagas disease. The development of megaesophagus and megacolon are complications seen in the chronic phase. Rhodnius prolixus is a vector for Trypanosoma cruzi, the parasite that causes Chagas disease. Glossina morsitans is the vector for African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), Ixodes scapularis is the vector for Lyme disease, and Simulium damnosum is the vector for onchocerciasis (river blindness), making them incorrect choices for this particular parasitic infection.
An 8-year-old boy undergoes a resection of a tumor in the right cerebrum next to the lateral ventricle (supratentorial). The pathologist feels the histology is most consistent with an ependymoma. The tumor is sent for advanced molecular and genetic testing. Which of the following findings would further support a diagnosis of ependymoma?
- A. BRAFKIAA1549 fusion
- B. BRAFV600E mutation
- C. RELA fusion
- D. H3K27M mutation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: RELA fusion. Ependymomas are known to have specific genetic alterations, including RELA fusions. The fusion of RELA gene is a hallmark genetic abnormality observed in certain subtypes of ependymomas, aiding in the diagnosis. Conversely, choices A, B, and D are associated with other types of brain tumors such as pilocytic astrocytoma (A), melanoma (B), and diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (D), respectively. These genetic alterations are not characteristic of ependymomas, making them incorrect choices in this context.