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A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?
- A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
- B. Encourage the client to rest.
- C. Plan an activity involving physical exercise.
- D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for a male client with schizophrenia who is diaphoretic and pacing the hallway is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. Diaphoresis and pacing can be indicators of agitation or distress in clients with schizophrenia. Careful observation is crucial to monitor the client's safety, assess for any potential escalation of symptoms, and provide timely intervention if needed. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for safety and observation. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) may not be effective if the client is agitated. Planning an activity involving physical exercise (Choice C) could potentially exacerbate the situation rather than addressing the immediate need for observation and safety.
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A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
- B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
- D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.
A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours.
- B. Monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
- D. Check the client's temperature every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.
A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer insulin per sliding scale protocol.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids.
- D. Check the client's skin for signs of bruising.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.
A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.
A client is admitted for first and second-degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
- A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
- B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
- C. Initiate intravenous therapy
- D. Administer pain medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea or stridor is crucial as these are signs of airway compromise, which is a priority concern in burns involving the face. Burns on the face can lead to airway swelling or compromise due to airway proximity, making respiratory assessment the top priority. Covering the areas with dry sterile dressings, initiating intravenous therapy, and administering pain medication are important interventions but assessing for airway issues takes precedence in this situation.