Nokea
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
- A. Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician
- B. Encourage a liberal fluid intake
- C. Keep the room well lit and play some soothing music in the ground
- D. Help the client ambulate and perform a few light leg exercises#
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician.
Rationale:
1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal.
2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache.
3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation.
Summary of other choices:
B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache.
C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms.
D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 62-year old client diagnosed with pyelonephritis and possible septicemia has had five urinary tract infections over the past 2 years. She’s fatigued from lack of sleep; urinates frequently, even during the night, and has lost weight recently. Tests reveal the following: sodium level 152mEq/L, osmolarity 340mOsm/L, glucose level 125mg/dl, and potassium level of 3.8mEq/L. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this client?
- A. Deficient fluid volume related to inability to conserve water
- B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolic state
- C. Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia
- D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to catabolic effects of insulin deficiency
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client is C: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia. The client's elevated sodium level of 152mEq/L indicates hypernatremia, which leads to osmotic diuresis and subsequent fluid loss. This results in deficient fluid volume, causing the client to urinate frequently and experience fatigue from lack of sleep. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Deficient fluid volume related to inability to conserve water is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the primary issue is the osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia, not the client's inability to conserve water.
B: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolic state is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the client's weight loss is likely due to fluid loss from osmotic diuresis, not a hypermetabolic state.
D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to catab
Which laboratory study is monitored for the patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. INR
- B. PTT
- C. PT
- D. Bleeding time
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) because it specifically measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A prolonged PTT indicates that heparin is achieving the desired anticoagulant effect.
A: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
C: PT (Prothrombin Time) is also used to monitor warfarin therapy.
D: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy and is more focused on platelet function rather than coagulation factors.
A client with stage II ovarian cancer undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo- oopherectomy with tumor secretion, omentectomy, appendectomy, and lymphadenopathy. During the second postoperative day, which of the following assessment findings would raise concern in the nurse?
- A. Abdominal pain
- B. Serous drainage from the incision
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. Shallow breathing and increasing lethargy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shallow breathing and increasing lethargy. This finding could indicate a potential respiratory complication such as atelectasis or pneumonia, which are common postoperative complications. Shallow breathing can lead to inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, causing lethargy due to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. It is crucial to assess and address respiratory issues promptly to prevent further complications.
A: Abdominal pain is expected postoperatively and can be managed with pain medications.
B: Serous drainage from the incision is a normal finding after surgery and indicates the wound is healing properly.
C: Hypoactive bowel sounds are common after surgery due to decreased peristalsis and can be managed with interventions such as early ambulation and medications.
A client comes to her health care provider’s office because she is having abdominal pain. She has been seen for this problem before. What type of assessment would the nurse do?
- A. Initial assessment
- B. Focused assessment
- C. Emergency assessment
- D. Time-lapsed assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the client's abdominal pain is a known issue, so a focused assessment would be appropriate to gather specific information related to the current complaint. A focused assessment allows the nurse to concentrate on the particular problem at hand, which in this case is the abdominal pain.
A: Initial assessment is not applicable as the client has been seen for this issue before.
C: Emergency assessment is not necessary as the situation does not indicate an urgent or life-threatening condition.
D: Time-lapsed assessment is not suitable because it involves assessing changes over time, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.
In summary, a focused assessment is the most appropriate choice as it allows the nurse to address the client's specific complaint efficiently.
When testing visual fields, the nurse is assessing which of the following parts of vision?
- A. Peripheral vision
- B. Distance vision
- C. Near vision
- D. Central vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral vision. When testing visual fields, the nurse evaluates the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight, which is indicative of peripheral vision. Peripheral vision helps detect objects and movement in the side vision. Distance vision (B) refers to the ability to see clearly at a distance, while near vision (C) pertains to close-up vision. Central vision (D) is essential for focusing on details and seeing straight ahead. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it specifically pertains to the assessment of visual fields.