A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
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The patient is admitted to a skilled care unit for rehabilitation after the surgical procedure of fixation of a fractured left hip. The patient's nursing diagnosis is Impaired physical mobility related to musculoskeletal impairment from surgery and pain with movement. The patient is able to use a walker but needs assistance ambulating and transferring from the bed to the chair. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient?
- A. Obtain assistance and physically transfer the patient to the chair.
- B. Assist with ambulation and measure how far the patient walks.
- C. Give pain medication after ambulation so the patient will have a clear mind.
- D. Bring the patient to the cafeteria for group instruction on ambulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for this patient is to assist with ambulation and measure how far the patient walks. This intervention helps quantify the patient's progress in mobility and rehabilitation. Choice A is incorrect because physically transferring the patient does not focus on promoting independence or assessing progress. Choice C is inappropriate as pain medication should be given based on scheduled times or as needed, not specifically after ambulation. Choice D is not suitable as group instruction on ambulation is not as individualized or focused on the patient's current needs and abilities.
A male Native American presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent abdominal cramping and nausea. He states that he has chronic constipation and had not had a bowel movement in five days, despite trying several home remedies. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Evaluate the stool samples for the presence of blood
- B. Assess for the presence of an impaction
- C. Determine which home remedies were used
- D. Obtain a list of prescribed medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for impaction is crucial as it is a common cause of constipation and abdominal discomfort. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of chronic constipation and no bowel movement for five days despite trying home remedies indicate a potential impaction that needs to be assessed. Evaluating stool samples for blood, determining the home remedies used, or obtaining a list of prescribed medications, while potentially relevant, are not as urgent as assessing for impaction in this situation.
The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?
- A. These are normal signs of aging.
- B. These are early signs of dementia.
- C. These are purely psychological in origin.
- D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.
A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. What action should the school nurse take first?
- A. Call for emergency transport to the hospital
- B. Immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury
- C. Assess the child and the extent of the injury
- D. Apply cold compresses to the injured area
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take when a child is injured and appears to have a fractured leg is to assess the child and the extent of the injury. This initial assessment is crucial to determine the severity of the injury before proceeding with further interventions. Option A, calling for emergency transport, should only be done after assessing the extent of the injury. Option B, immobilizing the limb and joints, is important but should come after the initial assessment. Option D, applying cold compresses, is not recommended for suspected fractures as it can exacerbate swelling and pain.
While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?
- A. Albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
- C. WBC count of 6,000/mm³
- D. Blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.