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When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?
- A. Absence of a pulse
- B. Presence of a pulse
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.
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A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The client moves the walker ahead 25.4 cm with each step
- B. The client picks up the walker with each step
- C. The client stands with elbows slightly bent while holding the walker
- D. The client stoops slightly forward when moving the walker
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client who is post-operative following a hip replacement. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Pain at the surgical site
- B. Swelling in the affected leg
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical assessment finding that could indicate a pulmonary embolism or other serious complication related to surgery, such as a respiratory issue or cardiac problem. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Pain at the surgical site is common post-operatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Swelling in the affected leg is expected after a hip replacement and can often be managed conservatively or monitored closely. An elevated temperature could be a sign of infection, which is important to address but may not require immediate intervention unless other symptoms of sepsis are present.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rate
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with a history of hypertension is a critical assessment finding as it may indicate heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other severe complications. The development of shortness of breath suggests that the client's condition may be rapidly deteriorating and requires immediate medical attention. Elevated blood pressure (150/90 mmHg) is concerning but not as acute as the potential complications associated with shortness of breath. An irregular heart rate and headache can also be symptoms of hypertension, but in this scenario, shortness of breath poses a higher risk of severe cardiovascular or respiratory issues.
The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving dietary modification education from the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating large meals before bedtime.
- B. I will limit coffee consumption to the morning hours.
- C. I will elevate the head of my bed while sleeping.
- D. I will avoid spicy and acidic foods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with GERD should avoid coffee as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and exacerbate symptoms. Limiting coffee consumption to the morning hours may not be sufficient, as coffee can still contribute to GERD symptoms throughout the day. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for managing GERD symptoms. Avoiding large meals before bedtime, elevating the head of the bed while sleeping, and steering clear of spicy and acidic foods are all recommended practices to help alleviate GERD symptoms. Therefore, the client's statement in option B indicates a need for further teaching to completely address dietary modifications for managing GERD.
A client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
- B. Provide antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- C. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids.
- D. Assist the client with oral care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best intervention for a client experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is to provide antiemetic medication as prescribed. This medication helps in managing and reducing nausea and vomiting, providing relief to the client. Offering small, frequent meals (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Encouraging clear liquid intake (Choice C) may not be effective in controlling nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Assisting with oral care (Choice D) is important for overall comfort but may not directly address the symptoms of nausea and vomiting.