Nokea
A male client is prescribed medications that depress thrombocytes. The nurse should monitor for which of the ff signs and symptoms in the client?
- A. Sore throat and swollen glands
- B. Pernicious anemia with weakness
- C. Bleeding gums and dark tarry tools
- D. Thickening of blood and bruising
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytes, also known as platelets, play a crucial role in blood clotting. Medications that depress thrombocytes can lead to decreased clotting ability and an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of bleeding is essential. Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools are indicative of bleeding in the oral cavity and gastrointestinal tract, respectively, and are key indicators to watch for in a client taking medications that depress thrombocytes. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the impact of thrombocyte depression on clotting function.
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Which vitamin is recommended for all women of childbearing age to reduce the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida?
- A. A
- B. C
- C. Niacin
- D. Folic acid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Folic acid is the correct answer. All women of childbearing age are recommended to take folic acid to reduce the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida in their offspring. Neural tube defects occur in the early stages of pregnancy, often before a woman even knows she is pregnant, which is why it is important for all women of childbearing age to ensure they have adequate folic acid intake. Folic acid is a B vitamin that helps the body make new cells and plays a crucial role in the development of the baby's neural tube, which eventually becomes the brain and spinal cord. Adequate folic acid intake before and during pregnancy can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. That's why it is recommended for all women of childbearing age to take a daily folic acid supplement or consume foods fortified with folic acid.
For a patient with gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, the purpose of esophageal pH monitoring is to evaluate for:
- A. esophagitis from the reflux.
- B. frequency of the reflux.
- C. gastric emptying delays.
- D. possible obstructions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Esophageal pH monitoring measures the frequency and duration of acid exposure in the esophagus, helping diagnose GERD.
For a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which nursing intervention is appropriate?
- A. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques to help prevent infection
- B. Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count
- C. Giving aspirin, as prescribed to control body temperature
- D. Administering stool softeners, as ordered, to prevent straining during infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate nursing intervention for a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is administering platelets, as ordered, to maintain an adequate platelet count. ITP is a condition characterized by a decrease in platelet count, which can lead to thrombocytopenia and an increased risk of bleeding. Administering platelets can help prevent excessive bleeding and maintain hemostasis in these patients. Platelet transfusions may be required in severe cases to raise the platelet count to a safe level and prevent bleeding complications. It is crucial for nurses to monitor the platelet count regularly and administer platelets as prescribed to manage ITP effectively.
You asked to obtain a measurement of serum sodium level in the hospital lab; you obtain a value of 125 mmol/L by repeating the test 5 times. The reference value of serum sodium at that lab is between 135-155 mmol/L. Your measurement is termed
- A. accurate but not precise
- B. precise but not accurate
- C. neither accurate nor precise
- D. both accurate and precise
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The measurement is consistently low, indicating it is neither close to the true value (inaccurate) nor consistent with the reference range.
Primary amenorrhea should be considered for any female adolescent who has not reached menarche by
- A. 13 years or has not done so within 3 years of thelarche
- B. 14 years or has not done so within 2 years of thelarche
- C. 14 years or has not done so within 3 years of thelarche
- D. 15 years or has not done so within 3 years of thelarche
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Primary amenorrhea is suspected if menarche has not occurred by age 15 or within 3 years of thelarche.