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A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
- B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
- C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
- D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.
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A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Pan-seared catfish.
- B. Pepperoni pizza.
- C. Deep-fried shrimp.
- D. Beef strips with gravy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.
Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
- A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
- B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
- C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the nurse finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Report the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider.
- B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
- C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
- D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention as it can help alleviate the sensation of excessive thirst, which is a common side effect of lithium. Reporting the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider may be needed if there are signs of lithium toxicity, but the priority here is to address the immediate symptom of excessive thirst. Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is a known side effect of lithium, but it should not be left unaddressed. Simply telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may lead to further distress.
A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?
- A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
- B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
- C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
- D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.
When developing a plan of care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Impaired comfort.
- B. Risk for injury.
- C. Ineffective breathing pattern.
- D. Ineffective coping.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem in this scenario because aspiration of a caustic material can lead to serious airway and respiratory issues. This poses an immediate threat to the client's life and requires urgent intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. The other options, such as Impaired comfort, Risk for injury, and Ineffective coping, are important but are secondary concerns compared to the critical nature of respiratory compromise in this situation.