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A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.
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The nurse is developing unit policies that will include nursing guidelines for maintaining a therapeutic milieu. Which interventions should be included when providing a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting?
- A. Opportunities to contribute to one's treatment plan.
- B. One-on-one dialogue sessions with the therapist.
- C. Regularly scheduled unit activities for peer interaction.
- D. Home visits to reintegrate into the family.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is responsible for maintaining a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting, which involves creating a secure and structured environment that promotes client safety and offers opportunities for clients to learn healthy coping skills. Regularly scheduled unit activities for peer interaction help foster socialization, support, and a sense of community among clients. Choices A and B are valuable interventions in mental health care but do not directly relate to creating a therapeutic milieu in an inpatient setting. Choice D, home visits, would typically occur post-discharge and focus on community reintegration, rather than maintaining a therapeutic milieu within the inpatient setting.
A client with Bulimia and depression who is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 90 mg daily is admitted to an acute care hospital for uncontrolled hypertension. What dietary choices should the RN instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Pan-seared catfish.
- B. Pepperoni pizza.
- C. Deep-fried shrimp.
- D. Beef strips with gravy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking MAO inhibitors like phenelzine, foods containing tyramine should be avoided. Tyramine-rich foods can interact with MAO inhibitors and lead to a hypertensive crisis. Beef strips with gravy contain tyramine, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not specifically contraindicated with MAO inhibitors.
A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?
- A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
- B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
- C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.
A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, "I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep." The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?
- A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
- B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
- C. I really think that I don't need to be here.
- D. I don't want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.
A client with schizophrenia explains that she has 20 children and then very seriously points to the nurse and explains that she is one of them. What is the most therapeutic response for the nurse to provide?
- A. Let's go ask another nurse if this is true.
- B. My name tag shows that I am a nurse here.
- C. I cannot possibly be one of your children.
- D. I know that you don't have 20 children.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B, 'My name tag shows that I am a nurse here,' is the most appropriate response as it provides clear and factual information to help the client differentiate between reality and delusion. By pointing out a concrete piece of evidence, the nurse can gently guide the client back to reality without directly challenging or contradicting their belief. Option A, 'Let's go ask another nurse if this is true,' delays addressing the issue and doesn't provide immediate clarification. Option C, 'I cannot possibly be one of your children,' directly contradicts the client's statement and may increase distress. Option D, 'I know that you don't have 20 children,' does not address the client's belief and can be perceived as dismissive.