A maternal associated risk of prolonged pregnancy includes
- A. Intra-uterine oligohydramnios
- B. Placental insufficiency
- C. Fetal post-maturity syndrome
- D. Large for gestational age baby
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental insufficiency. Prolonged pregnancy can lead to decreased placental function, resulting in inadequate oxygen and nutrients for the fetus. This can lead to complications such as intra-uterine growth restriction and fetal distress. Option A (Intra-uterine oligohydramnios) is a consequence of decreased amniotic fluid levels but not directly associated with prolonged pregnancy. Option C (Fetal post-maturity syndrome) refers to the complications seen in a post-term newborn, not maternal risks. Option D (Large for gestational age baby) is a consequence of prolonged pregnancy but does not directly impact maternal health.
You may also like to solve these questions
The AGACNP is covering an internal medicine service and is paged by staff to see a patient who has just pulled out his ET tube. After the situation has been assessed, it is clear that the patient will go into respiratory failure and likely die if he is not reintubated. The patient is awake and alert and is adamant that he does not want to be reintubated. The AGACNP is concerned that there is not enough time to establish a DNRthe patient needs to be reintubated immediately and already is becoming obtunded. Which ethical principles are in conflict here?
- A. Veracity and beneficence
- B. Beneficence and nonmalfeasance
- C. Autonomy and beneficence
- D. Justice and autonomy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Veracity and beneficence. Veracity refers to truthfulness, and the AGACNP is facing a conflict between being honest with the patient about the need for reintubation (veracity) and providing beneficence by ensuring the patient receives necessary medical care to prevent harm. The patient's autonomy and right to make decisions are not directly in conflict since the patient is conscious, and autonomy is respected by honoring the patient's wishes. Justice is also not in conflict here as it does not pertain to the immediate ethical dilemma of reintubation. Autonomy and beneficence are not in direct conflict as the patient's autonomy is being respected by allowing them to make an informed decision. Nonmalfeasance is not directly applicable in this scenario.
Pubiotomy is
- A. Access to the lower uterine segment by dissection of tissues around the peritoneum
- B. A surgical procedure in which the cartilage of the pubic symphysis is divided
- C. Ligating of the pubic bones in case they are invaded by cancerous cells
- D. Dissection of the perineal tissues to hasten the perineal phase of labor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surgical procedure in which the cartilage of the pubic symphysis is divided. Pubiotomy involves cutting the pubic symphysis cartilage to widen the pelvic outlet during difficult childbirth. This procedure helps facilitate labor by increasing the pelvic diameter. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe pubiotomy. Choice A refers to accessing the lower uterine segment, choice C involves ligating pubic bones for cancer, and choice D pertains to perineal tissue dissection during labor, which are unrelated to pubiotomy.
S. R. is a 51-year-old male patient who is being evaluated for fatigue. Over the last few months he has noticed a marked decrease in activity tolerance. Physical examination reveals a variety of ecchymoses of unknown origin. The CBC is significant for a Hgb of 10.1 gdL, an MCV of 72 fL and a platelet count of 65,000L the remainder of the CBC is normal. Coagulation studies are normal, but bleeding time is prolonged. The AGACNP recognizes that initial management of this patient will include
- A. Avoidance of elective surgery and nonessential medications
- B. Prednisone 60 mg daily until platelets normal
- C. Monoclonal antibody therapy such as rituximab
- D. Splenectomy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Splenectomy. In this case, the patient presents with signs of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) with low platelet count and bleeding time prolongation. Splenectomy is the definitive treatment for ITP as the spleen is the site of platelet destruction. Avoiding elective surgery and medications (choice A) may be necessary to prevent bleeding complications but do not address the underlying issue. Prednisone (choice B) is used for acute treatment but not for long-term management. Monoclonal antibody therapy (choice C) is an option for refractory cases but not first-line therapy.
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
- A. Lactulose taken 20 g PO daily
- B. Spironolactone taken 100 mg PO daily
- C. Protein intake of 50 g daily
- D. Zolpidem taken 10 mg PO qhs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake is crucial to prevent ammonia accumulation. Protein breakdown in the body leads to ammonia production, which worsens encephalopathy symptoms. Limiting protein intake to 50g daily helps decrease ammonia formation. Lactulose (choice A) is used to reduce ammonia absorption in the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention in liver disease. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sedative and not related to managing ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for long-term management of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy.
Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to
- A. Cancel the transfer and keep her in the ICU
- B. Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma
- C. Repeat the labs the next day
- D. Prepare for reoperation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma. Given Janet's post-hepatic resection status and abnormal lab values indicating liver dysfunction (elevated bilirubin, low albumin, prolonged prothrombin time, elevated AST and ALT), she is at risk for coagulopathy and hypoalbuminemia. Infusing albumin can help improve her oncotic pressure and fluid balance, while fresh frozen plasma can replenish clotting factors to address the prolonged prothrombin time. This intervention aims to stabilize her condition before transferring to the general medical floor.
Canceling the transfer (Choice A) is not necessary if appropriate interventions can be taken. Repeating labs the next day (Choice C) delays potentially needed treatments. Preparing for reoperation (Choice D) is not indicated based on the information provided.
Nokea