Nokea
A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.
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A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?
- A. a banana
- B. grapefruit
- C. a salami sandwich
- D. avocado slices
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is grapefruit. Clients taking MAO Inhibitors like phenelzine (Nardil) should avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Grapefruit is a suitable choice as it is not high in tyramine. Bananas, avocados, and salami are foods that should be avoided due to their tyramine content, which can interact adversely with MAO Inhibitors. Therefore, choosing grapefruit is the safest option for the client.
Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:
- A. notify the physician of the drainage
- B. change the dressing
- C. reinforce the dressing
- D. apply an abdominal binder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of a classic cholecystectomy resection, serosanguinous drainage is an expected finding postoperatively due to the nature of the surgery. The appropriate intervention in this situation is to reinforce the dressing. Changing the dressing prematurely can increase the risk of introducing infection. Applying an abdominal binder is not recommended as it can obstruct the visualization of the dressing and the underlying wound, making it difficult to monitor for any complications or changes in drainage. Notifying the physician may be necessary if there are significant changes in the drainage characteristics or other concerning signs, but the immediate action should be to reinforce the dressing to maintain a clean and secure environment for wound healing.
When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. Hysterosalpingography
- B. Semen analysis
- C. Endometrial biopsy
- D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.
Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
- A. refusal to walk
- B. not pulling to a standing position
- C. negative Trendelenburg sign
- D. negative Ortolani sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.
A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:
- A. sprain.
- B. strain.
- C. subluxation.
- D. dislocation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.