A multigravid client at term is admitted to the hospital for a trial labor and possible vaginal birth. She has a history of previous cesarean delivery because of fetal distress. When the client is 4 cm dilated, she receives nalbuphine (Nubain) intravenously. While monitoring the fetal heart rate, the nurse observes minimal variability and a rate of 120 bpm. The nurse should explain the decreased variability is most likely caused by which of the following?
- A. Maternal fatigue.
- B. Fetal malposition.
- C. Small-for-gestational-age fetus.
- D. Effects of analgesic medication.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nalbuphine, an opioid, can reduce fetal heart rate variability by depressing the central nervous system, a common side effect. Maternal fatigue, malposition, or small-for-gestational-age fetus are less likely causes.
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A 19-year-old primigravid client at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor that began 8 hours ago. When the client's cervix is 7 cm dilated and the presenting part is at +1 station, the client tells the nurse, 'I need to push!' Which of the following would the nurse do next?
- A. Use the McDonald procedure to widen the pelvic opening.
- B. Increase the rate of oxygen and intravenous fluids.
- C. Tell the client to use a pant-blow pattern of breathing.
- D. Tell the client to push only when absolutely necessary.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 7 cm dilation, the client is not fully dilated, and pushing can cause cervical trauma. A pant-blow breathing pattern helps manage the urge to push until full dilation. The McDonald procedure is for cervical cerclage, and increasing oxygen/fluids or encouraging pushing is inappropriate.
A primigravid client who has had a prolonged labor but now is completely dilated has received epidural anesthesia. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan about pushing?
- A. The client needs to push for at least 1 to 3 minutes.
- B. Pushing is most effective when the client holds her breath.
- C. The client should be urged to push with an open glottis.
- D. Pushing is limited to times when she feels the urge.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pushing with an open glottis (exhaling during effort) is effective and reduces the risk of Valsalva maneuver complications. Prolonged pushing (1–3 minutes) is unrealistic, holding breath is discouraged, and with epidurals, the urge to push may be diminished.
A 28-year-old multigravid client at 28 weeks' gestation diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is receiving intravenous fluids and antibiotics. After teaching the client about the rationale for the aggressive therapy, the nurse determines that the client needs further instruction when she says that acute pyelonephritis can lead to which of the following?
- A. Preterm labor.
- B. Maternal sepsis.
- C. Intrauterine growth retardation.
- D. Congenital fetal anomalies.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute pyelonephritis can cause preterm labor, maternal sepsis, and intrauterine growth retardation due to infection and inflammation. Congenital fetal anomalies are not a direct consequence, indicating a need for further teaching.
While caring for a primipara diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis at 48 hours postpartum who is receiving treatment with bed rest and intravenous heparin therapy, the nurse should contact the client's physician immediately if the client exhibited which of the following?
- A. Pain in her calf.
- B. Dyspnea.
- C. Hypertension.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dyspnea may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate attention.
The nurse on the night shift finds a multiparous client, 8 hours postpartum, drenched in perspiration. The client's temperature is 99°F (36.8°C), the pulse is 68 bpm, and the blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority?
- A. Risk for infection (postpartum) related to birth trauma.
- B. Ineffective thermoregulation related to hormonal changes.
- C. Ineffective tissue perfusion: Renal related to the status of multiparity.
- D. Excess fluid volume related to normal postpartal diuresis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Profuse sweating and normal vital signs suggest ineffective thermoregulation due to hormonal shifts, a common postpartum occurrence.
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