Nokea
A client asks about the effectiveness of the vaginal contraceptive ring. Which of the following responses by the nurse is accurate?
- A. The ring is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy.
- B. The ring is highly effective when used correctly.
- C. The ring does not require a prescription.
- D. The ring is less effective than condoms.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vaginal contraceptive ring is highly effective when used correctly, with a low failure rate. It is not 100% effective, requires a prescription, and is generally more effective than condoms.
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A client is considering the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) for contraception. Which of the following conditions must be met for LAM to be effective?
- A. The client must be exclusively breastfeeding, amenorrheic, and less than 6 months postpartum.
- B. The client must be breastfeeding at least once daily and less than 12 months postpartum.
- C. The client must be amenorrheic and supplementing with formula.
- D. The client must be exclusively breastfeeding and have regular periods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: LAM is effective when the client is exclusively breastfeeding, amenorrheic, and less than 6 months postpartum, as these conditions suppress ovulation. The other options include factors that reduce its effectiveness, such as formula supplementation or regular periods.
A client asks about the risks of the contraceptive patch. Which of the following would the nurse include?
- A. Increased risk of blood clots.
- B. Permanent infertility.
- C. Guaranteed weight loss.
- D. Elimination of menstrual periods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The contraceptive patch may increase the risk of blood clots, especially in smokers or those with risk factors. It does not cause permanent infertility, guarantee weight loss, or eliminate periods (it causes withdrawal bleeding).
As a nurse begins her shift on the obstetrical unit, there are several new admissions. The client with which of the following conditions would be a candidate for induction?
- A. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
- B. Active herpes.
- C. Face presentation.
- D. Fetus with late decelerations.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is an indication for induction to prevent maternal-fetal complications. Active herpes, face presentation, or late decelerations are contraindications due to risks of infection, dystocia, or fetal distress.
The physician determines that the fetus of a multiparous client in active labor is in distress, necessitating a cesarean delivery with general anesthesia. Before the cesarean delivery, the anesthesiologist orders cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg PO. After administering the drug, the nurse should assess the client for reduction in which of the following?
- A. Incidence of bronchospasm.
- B. Oral and respiratory secretions.
- C. Acid level of the stomach contents.
- D. Incidence of postoperative gastric ulcer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cimetidine, an H2-receptor blocker, is given before general anesthesia to reduce gastric acid levels, minimizing the risk of aspiration pneumonitis. It does not affect bronchospasm, secretions, or postoperative ulcers directly.
A client at 28 weeks' gestation in premature labor was placed on ritodrine(Yutopar). To maintain the pregnancy, the physician orders the client to have 10 mg now, 10 mg in 2 hours, and then 20 mg every 4 hours while contractions persist, not to exceed the maximum daily oral dose of 120 mg. At what time will the client have reached the maximum dose if she begins taking the medication at 10:00 a.m. and follows the physician's order?
- A. 10:00 a.m.
- B. 10:00 p.m.
- C. 12:00 a.m.
- D. 2:00 a.m.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client will reach the maximum dose at 10:00 p.m.