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A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and reports that her infant is passing seedy, mustard-yellow stools. The nurse provides the mother with which information?
- A. To monitor the infant for infection and, if a fever develops, to contact the pediatrician
- B. That the stools should be solid and pale yellow to light brown
- C. That this is normal for breastfed infants
- D. To decrease the number of feedings by two per day
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Breastfed infants pass very soft, seedy, mustard-yellow stools, which is considered normal. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. It is essential for the mother to understand that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are expected in breastfed infants, indicating that there is no need for concern. Monitoring for infection as the first response without other symptoms can cause unnecessary anxiety. Decreasing the number of feedings without valid reasons can lead to inadequate nutrition for the newborn. Therefore, the correct advice for the nurse to provide in this scenario is that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are normal for breastfed infants, reassuring the mother and promoting proper understanding of newborn stool characteristics.
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A nurse is determining the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client using Nagele's rule and notes documentation that the date of the client's last menstrual period was August 30, 2013. The nurse determines the estimated date of delivery to be which date?
- A. 30-May-14
- B. 6-Jun-14
- C. 6-Jul-14
- D. 6-May-14
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nagele's rule is a method used to estimate the date of delivery for pregnant clients. The rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period, then adjusting the year. Subtracting 3 months from August 30, 2013, brings the date to May 30, 2013; adding 7 days results in June 6, 2013. Finally, after correcting the year, the estimated date of delivery is June 6, 2014. Therefore, the correct answer is June 6, 2014. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the accurate calculation based on Nagele's rule.
A nurse suspects that a client has a distended bladder. On percussing the client's bladder, which finding does the nurse expect to note if the bladder is full?
- A. Dull sounds
- B. Hyperresonance sounds
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. An absence of bowel sounds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When percussing a full bladder, the nurse expects to note dull sounds over the symphysis pubis. This is because a full bladder produces a flat or dull sound. Hyperresonance sounds are present with gaseous distention of the abdomen, not a full bladder. Bowel sounds are auscultated, not percussed, so hypoactive bowel sounds or an absence of bowel sounds are unrelated findings when assessing bladder distention.
When teaching parents how their children learn sex role identification, the nurse should include which of the following statements?
- A. Sex role identification begins in infancy.
- B. Sex role identification begins in the preschool years.
- C. Sex role identification begins during the school-age years.
- D. Sex role identification begins during early adolescence.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sex role identification begins during infancy as infants can identify body parts by the end of the first year. Preschoolers often engage in masturbation and sex play. School-age children continue to develop awareness of their sexual identity, including behaviors like hugging and kissing. Early adolescence sees further development influenced by sexual maturation and experimentation with sex roles. Therefore, the correct statement is that sex role identification begins in infancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the timeline of the development of sex role identification in children.
A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
- A. Near vision
- B. Color vision
- C. Distant vision
- D. Peripheral vision
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.
A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?
- A. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint
- B. Percussing at the location of the median nerve
- C. Checking for repetitive movements in the joints
- D. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.