Nokea
What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?
- A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
- B. Contact the healthcare provider
- C. Contact the registered nurse
- D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.
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A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:
- A. Gravida 2, para 6
- B. Gravida 6, para 2
- C. Gravida 3, para 6
- D. Gravida 2, para 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.
An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?
- A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
- B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
- C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
- D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.
Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?
- A. Rectus femoris muscle
- B. Deltoid muscle
- C. Gluteal muscle
- D. Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.
A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?
- A. One-quarter
- B. One-third
- C. One-half
- D. Two-thirds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.
A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
- A. Near vision
- B. Color vision
- C. Distant vision
- D. Peripheral vision
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.