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A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?
- A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
- B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
- C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
- D. The test results are normal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.
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A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
- C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
- D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?
- A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
- B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
- C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
- D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.
A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
- A. Near vision
- B. Color vision
- C. Distant vision
- D. Peripheral vision
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.
A nurse assisting with data collection plans to perform the Romberg test. After describing the test to the client, the nurse tells the client that it will help reveal which disorder?
- A. Loss of hearing acuity
- B. A problem with balance
- C. A problem with distant hearing
- D. A problem discriminating high-pitched and low-pitched sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Romberg test is a balance assessment that evaluates cerebellar function. During the test, the client stands with feet together and eyes closed, aiming to maintain balance for about 20 seconds. This test helps identify issues related to balance and proprioception, not hearing acuity or sound discrimination. Choices C and D are incorrect as the Romberg test focuses on balance, not distant hearing or sound discrimination.
A nurse is supervising a student in preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client. Which action by the student is correct?
- A. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level
- B. Placing a chair for the client across from the nurse's desk
- C. Providing seating for the client so that the client faces a strong light
- D. Setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client, it is crucial to ensure the client's comfort. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level is essential for the client's well-being. Additionally, providing privacy, sufficient lighting, and removing distractions are crucial factors. It is recommended to maintain a distance of around 4 to 5 feet between the client and the nurse. Seating should be arranged so that the client and nurse are at eye level to facilitate effective communication and prevent barriers. Placing a chair across from the nurse's desk may create a physical barrier, positioning the client to face a strong light can be uncomfortable and distracting, and setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level may impede effective communication.