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A nurse cares for a client on ethambutol therapy for tuberculosis. What should be monitored?
- A. Hearing loss
- B. Visual acuity
- C. Liver function
- D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Visual acuity. Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to visual disturbances. Monitoring visual acuity is crucial to detect any changes early.
Incorrect choices:
A: Hearing loss is associated with other medications for TB, not ethambutol.
C: Liver function is not typically affected by ethambutol.
D: Blood glucose is not directly impacted by ethambutol therapy.
In summary, monitoring visual acuity is essential due to the potential optic nerve toxicity of ethambutol, making it the most relevant parameter to monitor in this case.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive and is one day postoperative following an appendectomy. The nurse should wear a gown as personal protective equipment when taking which of the following actions?
- A. Changing the client's linens
- B. Administering oral medications
- C. Taking vital signs
- D. Completing a dressing change
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Completing a dressing change. When completing a dressing change for a client who is HIV positive and postoperative, the nurse should wear a gown as personal protective equipment to prevent potential exposure to blood or body fluids. This is crucial for infection control and to protect both the nurse and the client.
Choice A: Changing the client's linens does not necessarily require wearing a gown unless there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids.
Choice B: Administering oral medications does not require wearing a gown as there is no risk of exposure to blood or body fluids.
Choice C: Taking vital signs also does not require wearing a gown unless there is a possibility of exposure to blood or body fluids during the procedure.
In summary, completing a dressing change involves the risk of exposure to blood or body fluids, hence the need for wearing a gown. Other actions listed do not carry the same level of risk, therefore do not require the use of a gown as personal protective
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?
- A. CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count 10,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
- D. Platelet count 200,000/mm3
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. In HIV, monitoring CD4-T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the immune system's ability to fight infections. A low CD4 count indicates immunosuppression, increasing the risk of opportunistic infections. Therefore, it is the nurse's priority to monitor and ensure the CD4 count remains above critical levels to prevent complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: White blood cell count is important but not as specific to HIV management.
C: Hemoglobin level is important for assessing anemia but not a priority in HIV care.
D: Platelet count is important for clotting but not directly related to HIV progression.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and is taking aspirin 650 mg every 4 hours. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. C-reactive protein
- B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hematocrit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). ESR is a common test used to monitor inflammation levels in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients. Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory medication, so monitoring ESR can help assess the effectiveness of the treatment. A decrease in ESR levels indicates a reduction in inflammation, suggesting that the aspirin is working. The other choices (A, C, D) are not specific to monitoring the effectiveness of aspirin in RA. C-reactive protein and white blood cell count are general markers of inflammation and infection, not specific to RA. Hematocrit measures red blood cell levels, which are not directly related to the effectiveness of aspirin in treating RA.
A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
- B. Perform suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds.
- C. Apply suction while inserting the catheter.
- D. Limit oxygen therapy to 50% prior to suctioning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min. This is essential to prevent hypoxemia during the suctioning procedure. Adequate preoxygenation helps to increase the oxygen reserves in the client's lungs, reducing the risk of oxygen desaturation during and after suctioning. This is particularly important for clients with COPD and an artificial airway, as they are already at risk for hypoxemia due to impaired lung function.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Performing suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds is a general guideline, but it is not specific to clients with COPD and an artificial airway.
C: Applying suction while inserting the catheter is incorrect as this can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection.
D: Limiting oxygen therapy to 50% prior to suctioning is incorrect as it can lead to hypoxemia in clients with
A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after TURP. What indicates a complication?
- A. Clear urine output
- B. Burgundy-colored urine output
- C. Mild pain at the incision site
- D. Temperature of 98.6°F
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burgundy-colored urine output. This indicates a complication post-TURP due to potential bleeding. Clear urine output (A) is normal. Mild pain at the incision site (C) is expected. Temperature of 98.6°F (D) is within normal range.