A nurse is teaching a client about snacks that are appropriate on a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. A slice of cheese
- B. A small handful of almonds
- C. A baked apple
- D. Carrot sticks with hummus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A slice of cheese. Cheese is high in fat, sodium, and cholesterol, making it unsuitable for a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. The client needs further teaching to understand that cheese does not align with their dietary restrictions. The other options (B, C, D) are suitable choices for a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. Almonds are a source of healthy fats, a baked apple is low in fat and sodium, and carrot sticks with hummus are low in fat and cholesterol while providing fiber and nutrients. These options align with the client's dietary needs and do not require further teaching.
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A nurse is admitting a client who has a serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL and initiates cardiac monitoring. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during the initial assessment?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle spasms
- D. Severe agitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargy. A serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia. In hypercalcemia, calcium affects the central nervous system, leading to lethargy, weakness, and confusion. Lethargy is a common early symptom of hypercalcemia. Hypertension is not typically associated with hypercalcemia. Muscle spasms are more common in hypocalcemia. Severe agitation is not a typical manifestation of hypercalcemia.
A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that slows down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia as an adverse effect. This occurs because atenolol blocks the action of adrenaline on the heart, causing the heart to beat slower. Hyperglycemia (A) is not a common adverse effect of atenolol; in fact, it may even lower blood sugar levels slightly. Tachycardia (B) and hypertension (C) are the opposite effects of atenolol, as it is used to treat high blood pressure and reduce heart rate. Therefore, these would not be expected adverse effects.
A nurse works with an AP assigned to bathe a client with herpes zoster. The AP asks if it is contagious. What should the nurse say?
- A. Herpes zoster is not contagious to people who have had chickenpox.
- B. Herpes zoster spreads through the air.
- C. Herpes zoster is highly contagious to everyone.
- D. Herpes zoster only spreads through blood contact.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Individuals who have had chickenpox in the past are not at risk of getting shingles from someone with herpes zoster. The virus is not transmitted through the air (choice B) or through blood contact only (choice D). It is not highly contagious to everyone (choice C). By explaining to the AP that herpes zoster is not contagious to individuals who have had chickenpox, the nurse provides accurate information and helps alleviate concerns about the spread of the virus.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of essential hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings that is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Vertigo
- B. Fatigue
- C. Excessive thirst
- D. Frequent urination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vertigo. Essential hypertension can cause vertigo due to increased pressure in the blood vessels supplying the inner ear. Vertigo is a common symptom of hypertension. Fatigue (B) is a non-specific symptom seen in many conditions. Excessive thirst (C) and frequent urination (D) are more indicative of diabetes mellitus rather than essential hypertension.
A client is receiving treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer and asks the nurse to discuss her prognosis. The client plans to have aggressive surgical, radiation, and chemotherapy treatments. Which of the following prognoses should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. Poor
- B. Favorable
- C. Uncertain
- D. Excellent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor. In stage IV ovarian cancer, the cancer has spread beyond the ovaries to distant organs, resulting in a poor prognosis. The aggressive treatments may help manage symptoms and prolong survival but the overall prognosis remains poor due to the advanced stage of the cancer. Choice B (Favorable) is incorrect because stage IV ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis. Choice C (Uncertain) is incorrect as the prognosis for stage IV ovarian cancer is generally known to be poor. Choice D (Excellent) is incorrect as stage IV ovarian cancer is not associated with an excellent prognosis due to its advanced stage.
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