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A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and is taking aspirin 650 mg every 4 hours. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. C-reactive protein
- B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hematocrit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). ESR is a common test used to monitor inflammation levels in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients. Aspirin is an anti-inflammatory medication, so monitoring ESR can help assess the effectiveness of the treatment. A decrease in ESR levels indicates a reduction in inflammation, suggesting that the aspirin is working. The other choices (A, C, D) are not specific to monitoring the effectiveness of aspirin in RA. C-reactive protein and white blood cell count are general markers of inflammation and infection, not specific to RA. Hematocrit measures red blood cell levels, which are not directly related to the effectiveness of aspirin in treating RA.
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A nurse is assessing a client who reports numbness and pain in his right palm, index finger, and middle finger. The client reports working with a keyboard most of the time while at work. The nurse suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following tests should the nurse request that the client perform?
- A. Tinel's sign
- B. Phalen's test
- C. Rinne's test
- D. Romberg test
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phalen's test. Phalen's test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome by having the client flex the wrists and press the backs of the hands together for 1 minute to compress the median nerve. This test reproduces symptoms in individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome due to increased pressure on the median nerve. Tinel's sign (A) is used to assess for nerve compression, but it is not specific to carpal tunnel syndrome. Rinne's test (C) is used to assess for hearing loss. Romberg test (D) is used to assess for balance and proprioception issues. Choices E, F, and G are not relevant to assessing carpal tunnel syndrome.
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who takes furosemide for hypertension. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.3 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, which is a potassium deficiency. A potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and can increase the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining the heart's electrical activity. Hypertension (A) is not directly related to low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (B) is the opposite of what the client is experiencing. Pulmonary edema (D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels.
A nurse in a clinic is teaching information about cervical polyps with a client who has a new diagnosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Postcoital bleeding may occur.
- B. A pelvic ultrasound is required for diagnosis.
- C. Cervical polyps usually resolve without treatment.
- D. Cervical polyps are rarely associated with cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postcoital bleeding may occur. This information is essential to include in teaching about cervical polyps because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause bleeding, especially after intercourse. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this symptom to monitor for any abnormal bleeding and seek medical attention if necessary.
Option B is incorrect because a pelvic ultrasound is not always required for diagnosing cervical polyps; they can often be diagnosed through a pelvic exam. Option C is incorrect because not all cervical polyps resolve on their own and may require treatment if symptomatic. Option D is incorrect because while cervical polyps are usually benign, they can be associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer in some cases.
A home health nurse assesses an older adult with vision loss due to glaucoma. What is a safety hazard?
- A. Bright overhead lighting
- B. Presence of scatter rugs in the kitchen
- C. Using contrasting colors in home decor
- D. Wearing slip-resistant shoes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of scatter rugs in the kitchen. Scatter rugs pose a tripping hazard for individuals with vision loss, especially in areas like the kitchen where spills and slippery surfaces are common. The other choices are incorrect because: A - Bright overhead lighting can actually be beneficial for those with vision loss by improving visibility; C - Using contrasting colors can aid in distinguishing objects and pathways; D - Wearing slip-resistant shoes can help prevent falls.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has acute pancreatitis. The nurse should expect to find an elevation of which of the following values?
- A. Creatinine
- B. Bilirubin
- C. Amylase
- D. Albumin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, there is inflammation of the pancreas leading to leakage of pancreatic enzymes like amylase into the blood. Elevated amylase levels are a hallmark of acute pancreatitis. Creatinine (A) is related to kidney function, bilirubin (B) to liver function, and albumin (D) to protein status. In acute pancreatitis, the focus is on pancreatic enzymes like amylase.