Maternity and Pediatric Nursing 4th Edition Test Bank

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Severe and extensive hemolysis causes which of the ff?

  • A. Leg ulcers
  • B. Shock
  • C. Priapism
  • D. Compromised growth
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Severe and extensive hemolysis can lead to the destruction of a large number of red blood cells, causing a significant release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream. This excessive release of hemoglobin can overwhelm the body's ability to clear it, leading to the accumulation of toxic byproducts such as free hemoglobin and heme. These byproducts can lead to various complications, one of which is the potential for causing shock. Shock is a life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs due to a systemic vascular response to the circulating toxins and byproducts of hemolysis. It is a severe consequence of extensive hemolysis and requires immediate medical intervention to stabilize the patient.

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Hepatitis C virus infection is a risk factor for which of the following malignancy?

  • A. hepatoblastoma
  • B. splenic lymphoma
  • C. Hodgkin lymphoma
  • D. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis C is a known risk factor for splenic lymphoma and other B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders.

What does a nurse assess postoperatively in a client with a nasal fracture?

  • A. Allergic reaction
  • B. Extreme sense of smell
  • C. Airway obstruction
  • D. Stridor
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Postoperatively in a client with a nasal fracture, a nurse would assess for airway obstruction. Nasal fractures can cause swelling, bleeding, and obstruction of the nasal passages, which could potentially compromise the client's ability to breathe. Monitoring for signs of airway compromise, such as difficulty breathing, stridor, or other respiratory distress, is crucial in the postoperative period to ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Assessing for airway patency is a priority to prevent any serious complications related to impaired breathing. While allergic reaction, extreme sense of smell, or stridor may occur in some cases, airway obstruction is the most critical concern that requires immediate attention to maintain the client's respiratory function.

In an individual with Sjogren's syndrome, nursing care should focus on:

  • A. Moisture replacement
  • B. Nutritional supplementation
  • C. Electrolyte balance
  • D. Arrhythmia management
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterized by dryness of the eyes and mouth due to the destruction of moisture-producing glands. Nursing care for individuals with Sjogren's syndrome should focus on addressing the symptoms related to dryness. Moisture replacement is key in managing dry eyes and dry mouth, which can improve the patient's comfort and quality of life. Strategies for moisture replacement may include the use of artificial tears, saliva substitutes, and humidifiers to maintain adequate hydration and alleviate dryness. Nutritional supplementation, electrolyte balance, and arrhythmia management are not typically the primary focus of nursing care in individuals with Sjogren's syndrome.

Which common side effect of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) should the nurse instruct a patient to report to the health- care provider?

  • A. Numb hands
  • B. Gastrointestinal distress
  • C. Muscle weakness
  • D. Nightmares
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Metolazone, a diuretic medication commonly known as Zaroxolyn, can cause electrolyte imbalances in the body, particularly low potassium levels which can lead to muscle weakness. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the patient to report any signs or symptoms of muscle weakness to the healthcare provider promptly. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not common side effects of metolazone that typically require urgent medical attention.

The child who can hop on one foot, copies circles, and brushes teeth without help has achieved the developmental age of

  • A. 2 yr
  • B. 3 yr
  • C. 4 yr
  • D. 5 yr
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: These skills are typically developed by age 3.

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