Nokea
A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:
- A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
- B. the client has a Foley catheter.
- C. the client's family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
- D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.
Correct Answer: V
Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.
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The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?
- A. pureed canned squash
- B. pureed apples
- C. yogurt
- D. infant rice cereal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.
The mother of a child who weighs 45 lb asks a nurse about car safety seats. The nurse tells the mother to place the child in which car safety seat?
- A. Car safety seat in the back seat in a face-forward position
- B. Booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child
- C. Booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat
- D. Car safety seat in a face-forward position in the front seat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in a booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child. A child needs to remain in a car safety seat until he or she weighs 40 lb. Once the child has outgrown the car safety seat, a booster seat is used. Booster seats are designed to raise the child high enough so that the restraining straps are correctly positioned over the child's chest and pelvis, providing optimal safety. Placing a child in a booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat due to potential airbag-related injuries. Additionally, car safety seats are used for children weighing less than 40 lb and are placed in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing position for maximum protection.
When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:
- A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
- B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
- C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
- D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.
The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?
- A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
- B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
- C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
- D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.
The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:
- A. Good Samaritan laws.
- B. HIPAA.
- C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
- D. OBRA.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.