Nokea
The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?
- A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
- B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse assesses an adult male client 24 hours following abdominal surgery and finds that his blood pressure is 98/40 mm Hg, he is tachycardic, restless, and irritable. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
- B. Ensure that the IV is infusing at the prescribed rate.
- C. Listen to lung sounds.
- D. Check under his back for evidence of bleeding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first check under the client for evidence of bleeding. A blood pressure of 98/40 mm Hg, along with tachycardia, restlessness, and irritability, could indicate internal hemorrhage following abdominal surgery. Checking for bleeding under the back is crucial to rule out this life-threatening complication. Notifying the healthcare provider, ensuring IV infusion, or listening to lung sounds can be important but are secondary to ruling out immediate life-threatening conditions like internal bleeding.
A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?
- A. Supine with legs elevated
- B. High Fowler's position
- C. Prone with pillows under the chest
- D. Side-lying with head flat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.
Parents of a school-age child ask the nurse for suggestions in helping the child who is demonstrating school avoidance. What is an appropriate suggestion by the nurse?
- A. Take the child to the healthcare provider for testing.
- B. Be firm and insist the child go to school.
- C. Allow the child to stay home and rest.
- D. Consult with the teacher at school.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a child is demonstrating school avoidance, it is important for parents to be firm and insist that the child go to school. This helps establish a routine and prevents the behavior from becoming a pattern. Taking the child to the healthcare provider for testing (Choice A) may not be necessary at this stage as school avoidance is a behavioral issue. Allowing the child to stay home and rest (Choice C) may reinforce the avoidance behavior. While consulting with the teacher at school (Choice D) is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the avoidance behavior at home.
How should the nurse measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration?
- A. Attaching a urine collecting bag
- B. Wringing out the diaper
- C. Weighing the diaper
- D. Inserting a catheter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct way to measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration is by weighing the diaper. Wet diapers are weighed to assess the amount of output accurately. Attaching a urine collecting bag and inserting a catheter are invasive methods not typically used for routine measurement of urinary output in infants. Wringing out the diaper can lead to inaccurate measurements and is not a recommended method for assessing urinary output.
An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
- A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
- B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
- C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
- D. The medication has few side effects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.