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A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a 3-year-old child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prepare to assist with intubation.
- B. Obtain a throat culture.
- C. Suction the child's oropharynx.
- D. Prepare a cool mist tent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare to assist with intubation. Epiglottitis is a medical emergency where the swelling of the epiglottis can rapidly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress or failure. Intubation is crucial to secure the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation. Obtaining a throat culture (B) may delay necessary intervention. Suctioning the oropharynx (C) can trigger spasm and worsen the obstruction. Cool mist tent (D) does not address the immediate need for securing the airway.
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A nurse is assessing a client who has histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Suspicious of others
- B. Callousness
- C. Self-centered behavior
- D. Violates other's rights
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Self-centered behavior. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder typically exhibit attention-seeking, dramatic, and overly emotional behaviors. They often crave approval and validation from others, focusing on themselves and their own needs. This behavior aligns with the core characteristics of histrionic personality disorder.
Choice A (Suspicious of others) is incorrect as suspicion is not a defining trait of histrionic personality disorder. Choice B (Callousness) is inconsistent as histrionic individuals tend to be overly emotional rather than callous. Choice D (Violates other's rights) is not a common feature of histrionic personality disorder.
In summary, the nurse should expect self-centered behavior in a client with histrionic personality disorder, as they typically display attention-seeking and dramatic behaviors, seeking validation and approval from others.
A nurse is planning care for a client who sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to support the client's nutritional requirements?
- A. Maintain calorie intake at 1,500 per day
- B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
- C. Keep a calorie count for foods and beverages.
- D. Schedule meals at 6-hr intervals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Keep a calorie count for foods and beverages. For a client with major burn injuries, accurate monitoring of calorie intake is crucial to support nutritional requirements for wound healing and metabolic demands. This intervention allows the nurse to adjust the diet as needed to meet the client's energy needs. Choice A is incorrect as calorie intake requirements may vary based on individual needs. Choice B is incorrect as a high-protein diet is essential for wound healing in burn patients. Choice D is incorrect as frequent, smaller meals are typically recommended for burn patients to support healing and prevent muscle breakdown.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry cough
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea in a postoperative client with a history of pulmonary embolism indicates a potential respiratory complication, which could be life-threatening. The priority is to report this finding to the provider for prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications. Tachycardia (A) and hypotension (D) may also be concerning but dyspnea takes precedence due to its association with pulmonary embolism. A dry cough (B) may be a common postoperative symptom and not necessarily urgent.
For each potential action, click to specify if the action is indicated or contraindicated for the client.
- A. Allow the client to watch TV at a high volume.
- B. Ask the client about the content of their hallucinations
- C. Instruct the client on expected hygiene practices.
- D. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- E. Place the client in a room near the activity room
Correct Answer: B, C, D indicated; A, E contraindicated
Rationale: Correct Answer: B, C, D indicated; A, E contraindicated
Rationale:
1. B is indicated because asking about hallucinations can help assess the client's mental state.
2. C is indicated as maintaining hygiene is important for the client's well-being.
3. D is indicated to assess and address any suicidal ideation for client safety.
4. A is contraindicated as high TV volume can worsen auditory hallucinations.
5. E is contraindicated as placing near activity room may cause overstimulation and distress.
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.
- A. Urine protein
- B. Fetal activity
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urine ketones
- E. Respiratory rate
- F. Report of headache
- G. Gravida/parity
Correct Answer: A, B, C, F
Rationale: The correct answer includes findings that are indicative of potential prenatal complications.
A: Urine protein can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition in pregnancy.
B: Fetal activity changes may suggest fetal distress or growth restriction.
C: Blood pressure changes can indicate hypertension or preeclampsia.
F: Headache can be a symptom of preeclampsia or other serious conditions.
Choices D, E, and G are not typically associated with prenatal complications. D: Urine ketones may indicate dehydration but not necessarily a prenatal complication. E: Respiratory rate is not directly related to prenatal complications. G: Gravida/parity information is important for obstetric history but not directly indicative of current prenatal complications.