Nokea
Select the 5 actions the nurse should take.
- A. Increase the flowrate of the maintenance IV fluid
- B. Have the charge nurse notify the provider
- C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
- D. Exert upward pressure on the presenting part.
- E. Attempt to push the umbilical cord back into the cervix
- F. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather face mask
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E, F
Rationale: The correct actions (B, C, D, E, F) are based on managing a prolapsed umbilical cord during labor. B is crucial for timely intervention by involving the provider. C (Trendelenburg position) helps alleviate pressure on the cord. D (upward pressure) helps relieve compression on the cord. E aims to prevent cord compression. F (oxygen) supports fetal oxygenation. A is incorrect as increasing IV flowrate isn't a priority. G is not provided.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation about findings to report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Bleeding gums
- B. Faintness upon rising
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Swelling of the face
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Swelling of the face. At 14 weeks of gestation, facial swelling could indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and management to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Bleeding gums are common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased blood flow to the gums.
B: Faintness upon rising may be due to postural hypotension, common in pregnancy.
C: Urinary frequency is a common complaint in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus.
For each potential action, click to specify if the action is indicated or contraindicated for the client.
- A. Allow the client to watch TV at a high volume.
- B. Ask the client about the content of their hallucinations
- C. Instruct the client on expected hygiene practices.
- D. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- E. Place the client in a room near the activity room
Correct Answer: B, C, D indicated; A, E contraindicated
Rationale: Correct Answer: B, C, D indicated; A, E contraindicated
Rationale:
1. B is indicated because asking about hallucinations can help assess the client's mental state.
2. C is indicated as maintaining hygiene is important for the client's well-being.
3. D is indicated to assess and address any suicidal ideation for client safety.
4. A is contraindicated as high TV volume can worsen auditory hallucinations.
5. E is contraindicated as placing near activity room may cause overstimulation and distress.
A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4 mg IV 15 min ago. The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
- A. Acetylcysteine
- B. Protamine
- C. Naloxone
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression. In this case, the client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates opioid overdose due to hydromorphone. Naloxone administration can help reverse the respiratory depression and restore normal breathing.
Choice A: Acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, not opioid overdose.
Choice B: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not opioids.
Choice D: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist, not an opioid antagonist.
Therefore, the most appropriate choice in this scenario is Naloxone to address the opioid overdose and respiratory depression.
A nurse is teaching a client about advance directive. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. A living will is a document that includes my wishes about health care decisions.'
- B. My provider will make my health care decisions if I complete advance directives.'
- C. Advance directives outline who inherits my material possessions in the event of my death.'
- D. My partner needs to be present as a witness when I sign a living will.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately defines a living will as a document stating the client's healthcare wishes. This shows understanding of an advance directive's purpose. Option B is incorrect because advance directives empower the client, not the provider, to make healthcare decisions. Option C is incorrect as advance directives focus on healthcare, not material possessions. Option D is incorrect as witnesses don't need to be partners, just competent adults.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry cough
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea in a postoperative client with a history of pulmonary embolism indicates a potential respiratory complication, which could be life-threatening. The priority is to report this finding to the provider for prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications. Tachycardia (A) and hypotension (D) may also be concerning but dyspnea takes precedence due to its association with pulmonary embolism. A dry cough (B) may be a common postoperative symptom and not necessarily urgent.