Nokea
A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
- C. Polyuria
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis with a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Reduces blood pressure
- B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
- C. Promotes RBC production
- D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease who may have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: epoetin alfa does not directly reduce blood pressure, inhibit clotting of the fistula, or stimulate growth of neutrophils.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?
- A. Gentamicin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Piperacillin
- D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.
A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
- A. 19 gtt/min
- B. 20 gtt/min
- C. 21 gtt/min
- D. 22 gtt/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.
A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 60 mL/hr
- B. 62 mL/hr
- C. 63 mL/hr
- D. 65 mL/hr
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 250 mL / 4 hours = 62.5 mL/hr, which should be rounded up to 63 mL/hr. This ensures the correct rate is set for continuous feeding. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice B (62 mL/hr) is close but does not round up to the nearest whole number as required. Choice D (65 mL/hr) is higher than the correct calculation and would deliver the feeding solution at a faster rate than prescribed.
A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.