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A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Postpartum hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor, not at risk for ectopic pregnancy (A). Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, unrelated to cervical dilation. Incompetent cervix (C) is characterized by painless cervical dilation in the second trimester. Postpartum hemorrhage (D) is a risk due to the advanced cervical dilation and effacement, making it more likely for excessive bleeding during and after delivery.
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A nurse in a prenatal clinic is assessing a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who is at 11 weeks of gestation and reports abdominal cramping
- B. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation and reports tingling and numbness in right hand
- C. A client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and reports constipation for the past 4 days
- D. A client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and reports having three bloody noses in the past week
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A client who is at 11 weeks of gestation and reports abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping in early pregnancy can be a sign of ectopic pregnancy, miscarriage, or other complications requiring immediate attention. The nurse should see this client first to assess the situation and provide appropriate interventions.
Choice B is incorrect because tingling and numbness in the right hand is not typically an urgent issue in pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as constipation, while uncomfortable, is not an immediate concern that requires urgent attention. Choice D is incorrect as bloody noses can be common in pregnancy due to increased blood volume and nasal congestion, but it does not require immediate attention unless severe or persistent.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation during a routine prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Swelling of the face
- B. Varicose veins in the calves
- C. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema
- D. Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swelling of the face. This finding may indicate a serious condition called preeclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, posing risks to both the mother and baby. Reporting this promptly allows for timely management and monitoring.
Incorrect choices:
B: Varicose veins in the calves are common in pregnancy due to increased blood volume and pressure on veins, usually not an urgent concern.
C: Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema is a mild swelling often seen in pregnancy, which is typically expected and not alarming at this stage.
D: Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks, known as melasma or "mask of pregnancy," is a common cosmetic change in pregnancy, not requiring immediate medical attention.
A nurse is transporting a newborn back to the parent's room following a procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take prior to leaving the newborn with their parent?
- A. Ensure that the parent's identification band number matches the newborn's identification band number.
- B. Ask the parent to verify their name and date of birth.
- C. Check the newborn's security tag number to ensure it matches the newborn's medical record.
- D. Match the newborn's date and time of birth to the information in the parent's medical record.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure that the parent's identification band number matches the newborn's identification band number. This is crucial for patient safety and identification to prevent mix-ups. Matching the identification band numbers ensures that the newborn is returned to the correct parent. Checking the parent's identification ensures that the parent is indeed the one authorized to receive the newborn. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the vital step of verifying the parent-newborn match through identification band numbers, making them incorrect.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?Select the 3 findings that should be reported.
- A. Uterine contractions
- B. Fetal heart rate
- C. Gestational age
- D. Vaginal examination
- E. Maternal blood pressure
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: The correct answers to report to the provider are A, B, and D.
A: Uterine contractions - Significant contractions could indicate preterm labor.
B: Fetal heart rate - Abnormal fetal heart rate can indicate fetal distress.
D: Vaginal examination - Risk of infection or cervical changes need provider evaluation.
C: Gestational age - Routine information, not typically requiring immediate provider notification.
E: Maternal blood pressure - Important but not typically urgent unless severely abnormal.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Depression
- B. Polyuria
- C. Hypotension
- D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Combined oral contraceptives can cause mood changes, including depression, as an adverse effect due to hormonal fluctuations. This is important for the nurse to include in teaching to monitor the client's mental health. Polyuria (B) is excessive urination, not associated with oral contraceptives. Hypotension (C) is low blood pressure, not a common adverse effect of oral contraceptives. Urticaria (D) is hives, typically not linked to this medication.