Nokea
A nurse is assessing a client for hypoxemia during an asthma attack. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Agitation
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agitation. During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the brain, causing agitation due to hypoxia. Cyanosis (A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, indicating severe hypoxemia. Hypotension (C) is not typically associated with hypoxemia in asthma. Dizziness (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperventilation rather than hypoxemia. In summary, agitation is the most likely manifestation of hypoxemia during an asthma attack due to decreased oxygen supply to the brain.
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A nurse in a clinic is teaching information about cervical polyps with a client who has a new diagnosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Postcoital bleeding may occur.
- B. A pelvic ultrasound is required for diagnosis.
- C. Cervical polyps usually resolve without treatment.
- D. Cervical polyps are rarely associated with cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postcoital bleeding may occur. This information is essential to include in teaching about cervical polyps because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Cervical polyps are benign growths on the cervix that can cause bleeding, especially after intercourse. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this symptom to monitor for any abnormal bleeding and seek medical attention if necessary.
Option B is incorrect because a pelvic ultrasound is not always required for diagnosing cervical polyps; they can often be diagnosed through a pelvic exam. Option C is incorrect because not all cervical polyps resolve on their own and may require treatment if symptomatic. Option D is incorrect because while cervical polyps are usually benign, they can be associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer in some cases.
A nurse evaluates a client's PSA lab results. An increase in PSA indicates what condition?
- A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
- B. Prostatic cancer
- C. Urinary tract infection
- D. Kidney stones
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prostatic cancer. PSA levels are commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels indicate an increased likelihood of prostate cancer. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (choice A) is a non-cancerous condition that can also cause elevated PSA levels but is not indicative of cancer. Urinary tract infection (choice C) and kidney stones (choice D) do not directly affect PSA levels. The other choices (E, F, G) are not provided, but the key is to understand that an increase in PSA specifically points towards the possibility of prostatic cancer.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. This can lead to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in a client with heart failure as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels regularly to prevent this adverse effect.
Summary of other choices:
B: Hyperkalemia - Furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia.
C: Hypernatremia - Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to sodium loss, not hypernatremia.
D: Hypertension - Furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension, so it is not an adverse effect of the medication in this scenario.
A nurse is teaching a client about the causes of osteoporosis. The nurse should include which of the following types of medication therapy as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
- A. Thyroid hormones
- B. Antihypertensives
- C. Steroids
- D. Insulin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Steroids. Steroids, specifically glucocorticoids, are known to increase the risk of osteoporosis by decreasing bone formation and increasing bone resorption. Long-term use of steroids can lead to bone loss, making individuals more susceptible to fractures. Thyroid hormones (A) do not directly cause osteoporosis. Antihypertensives (B) and insulin (D) are not associated with increased risk of osteoporosis.
A nurse is teaching about adverse effects of anastrozole with a client who has advanced breast cancer and is postmenopausal. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse recommend the client report to the provider?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Musculoskeletal pain
- D. Nausea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Musculoskeletal pain. Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor used in breast cancer treatment, can cause musculoskeletal pain as a common adverse effect. This is important to report to the provider as it may indicate musculoskeletal issues such as osteoporosis or arthritis. Fatigue (A) and hot flashes (B) are common side effects of anastrozole but not typically indicative of serious issues requiring immediate attention. Nausea (D) is also a common side effect but is usually manageable and not a significant concern unless severe. It is crucial for the nurse to prioritize musculoskeletal pain as a potential indicator of more serious complications.