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A nurse is planning a presentation about HIV for a church-based group. Which of the following information about HIV transmission should the nurse include?
- A. It is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids.
- B. It is transmitted through casual contact.
- C. It is transmitted through airborne droplets.
- D. It is only transmitted through sexual contact.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because HIV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. This includes activities like unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing needles, and mother-to-child transmission during childbirth or breastfeeding. Casual contact (choice B) is not a common mode of transmission, and HIV is not transmitted through airborne droplets (choice C). While sexual contact is a significant mode of transmission, HIV can also be transmitted through other means involving infected body fluids. Thus, option D is incorrect as it is too limiting.
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A client is receiving treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer and asks the nurse to discuss her prognosis. The client plans to have aggressive surgical, radiation, and chemotherapy treatments. Which of the following prognoses should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. Good
- B. Excellent
- C. Fair
- D. Poor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Poor. In stage IV ovarian cancer, the cancer has spread beyond the ovaries to distant organs. Prognosis is generally poor due to the advanced stage of the disease. Aggressive treatments can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life but are unlikely to cure the cancer. Discussing a poor prognosis with the client allows for realistic expectations and informed decision-making. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they suggest a better prognosis which is not typical for stage IV ovarian cancer.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is performing an admission assessment of a client who has COPD with emphysema. The client reports that he has a frequent productive cough and is short of breath. The nurse should anticipate which of the following assessment findings for this client?
- A. Fine crackles in the lungs
- B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest
- C. Increased tactile fremitus
- D. Fever and chills
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. In COPD with emphysema, there is air trapping leading to hyperinflation of the lungs, causing the chest to expand more in the front-to-back direction (increased anteroposterior diameter). This is known as barrel chest.
A: Fine crackles are not typically associated with COPD/emphysema, they are more common in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia.
C: Increased tactile fremitus is not typically seen in COPD/emphysema, it may be present in conditions like pneumonia.
D: Fever and chills are not typical findings in COPD/emphysema unless there is an infection present.
A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who has a possible diagnosis of endometriosis. Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse recognize as consistent with a diagnosis of endometriosis?
- A. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs
- B. Heavy menstrual bleeding
- C. Positive family history of fibroids
- D. Pelvic pain after intercourse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs. Endometriosis is characterized by severe menstrual pain that is not relieved by NSAIDs. This is due to the abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Heavy menstrual bleeding (B) is a common symptom but not specific to endometriosis. Positive family history of fibroids (C) is unrelated to endometriosis. Pelvic pain after intercourse (D) can be a symptom of endometriosis but is not as specific as unresponsive dysmenorrhea.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure ulcer. The nurse should identify an elevation in which of the following laboratory values as an indication that the client has developed an infection?
- A. Serum albumin level
- B. WBC count
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. BUN
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: WBC count. An elevation in WBC count indicates an immune response to infection, as white blood cells increase to fight off pathogens. In the context of a pressure ulcer, an elevated WBC count suggests the presence of infection due to the body's response to foreign organisms. Other choices are not directly related to infection in this scenario. Serum albumin level (A) reflects nutritional status, serum potassium level (C) indicates electrolyte balance, and BUN (D) reflects kidney function. Hence, they are not specific indicators of infection in a client with a pressure ulcer.
A nurse receives a unit of packed RBCs from a blood bank and notes that the time is 1130. The nurse should begin the infusion at which of the following times?
- A. As soon as the nurse can prepare the client and the administration set
- B. At 1200
- C. At 1300
- D. At 1400
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: As soon as the nurse can prepare the client and the administration set. It is important to start the infusion promptly to maximize the effectiveness of the blood transfusion. Delaying the infusion can lead to potential complications. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest delayed start times, which can be detrimental to the patient's health. Starting the infusion as soon as possible ensures that the patient receives the necessary blood components in a timely manner.