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A nurse is assessing a client who is admitted for elective surgery and has a history of Addison’s disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Purple striations
- B. Hirsutism
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Intention tremors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperpigmentation. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to decreased production of cortisol and aldosterone. This results in increased production of ACTH, which can cause hyperpigmentation, especially in sun-exposed areas. Purple striations (A) are seen in Cushing's syndrome, not Addison's. Hirsutism (B) is excessive hair growth, commonly seen in conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome, not Addison's. Intention tremors (D) are associated with cerebellar dysfunction, not typically seen in Addison's.
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A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the explanation of initial symptoms?
- A. Flu-like symptoms and night sweats
- B. Fungal and bacterial infections
- C. Pneumocystis lung infection
- D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flu-like symptoms and night sweats. Initial symptoms of HIV infection often present as flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and night sweats. This is known as acute retroviral syndrome and occurs within the first few weeks after exposure to the virus. These symptoms are nonspecific and can easily be mistaken for other common illnesses. Fungal and bacterial infections (B), Pneumocystis lung infection (C), and Kaposi’s sarcoma (D) are not initial symptoms of HIV infection. Fungal and bacterial infections typically occur in later stages of HIV when the immune system is severely compromised. Pneumocystis lung infection and Kaposi’s sarcoma are opportunistic infections seen in advanced stages of HIV, usually when the CD4 count is significantly low.
A nurse is preparing to administer amitriptyline 150 mg PO at bedtime. The amount available is amitriptyline 75 mg tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: The nurse should administer 2 tablets of amitriptyline 75 mg each to achieve a total dose of 150 mg. Since each tablet is 75 mg, 2 tablets would equal 150 mg. This ensures the patient receives the prescribed dose accurately. Other choices are incorrect because administering 1 tablet would result in only 75 mg, insufficient for the prescribed dose. Administering 3 tablets would exceed the prescribed dose, leading to potential overdose. Choices above 3 tablets are also incorrect as they would significantly exceed the prescribed 150 mg dose, risking adverse effects.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results from a client who has prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypophosphatemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. In prerenal AKI, decreased blood flow to the kidneys leads to reduced filtration and impaired excretion of potassium, resulting in hyperkalemia. Hypophosphatemia (A), hypercalcemia (C), and hypernatremia (D) are not typically associated with prerenal AKI. In prerenal AKI, there is usually no significant change in phosphate levels, calcium levels are typically normal or low due to volume depletion, and sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to reduced renal perfusion.
A nurse is preparing to administer fluconazole 400 mg by intermittent IV bolus daily. Available is fluconazole 400 mg in 0.9% sodium chloride (NaCl) 200 mL to infuse over 2 hours. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth/whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 100
Rationale: Correct Answer: 100
Rationale: To calculate the IV pump rate, use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL) / (Time in hours). In this case, 200 mL over 2 hours. 200 / 2 = 100 mL/hr.
Summary:
A. Incorrect. Not the correct calculation for the IV pump rate.
B. Incorrect. Not the correct calculation for the IV pump rate.
C. Incorrect. Not the correct calculation for the IV pump rate.
D. Incorrect. Not the correct calculation for the IV pump rate.
E. Incorrect. Not the correct calculation for the IV pump rate.
F. Incorrect. Not the correct calculation for the IV pump rate.
G. Incorrect. Not the correct calculation for the IV pump rate.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I’ll be sure to eat more foods with vitamin K.
- B. I’ll take aspirin for my headaches.
- C. I’ll use my electric razor for shaving.
- D. It’s okay to have a couple of glasses of wine with dinner each evening.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I’ll use my electric razor for shaving." This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because warfarin is a blood thinner, increasing the risk of bleeding. Using an electric razor reduces the risk of nicks and cuts, which could lead to excessive bleeding.
Incorrect choices:
A: "I’ll be sure to eat more foods with vitamin K." - Eating more vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin.
B: "I’ll take aspirin for my headaches." - Aspirin is a blood thinner and should not be taken along with warfarin.
D: "It’s okay to have a couple of glasses of wine with dinner each evening." - Alcohol can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding.
Choosing option C demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of minimizing the risk of bleeding while on warfarin therapy.