Nokea
A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4mg IV 15 min ago. The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min. the nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Flumazenil
- C. Activated charcoal
- D. Atropine
- E. Diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naloxone. Hydromorphone is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression. The client's low respiratory rate of 10/min indicates potential opioid overdose. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression. Administering naloxone can help restore normal breathing in the client. Flumazenil (B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (C) is used for toxin ingestion, not opioid overdose. Atropine (D) is a medication used for bradycardia, not respiratory depression. Diphenhydramine (E) is an antihistamine and is not indicated in this situation.
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A nurse is caring for a client in an outpatient clinic.
Laboratory Results
First office visit:
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 21 mm/hr (up to 20 mm/hr)
Hct 36% (37 to 47%6)
Hgb 12 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL)
WBC count 6000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³)
Uric acid 6.1 mg/dL (2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL)
6-month follow-up:
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 22 mm/hr (up to 20 mm/hr)
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) positive
Hct 35% (37 to 47%)
Hgb 11 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL)
WBC 4000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³)
Uric acid 6,3 mg/dL (2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL)
The client is at highest risk for developing--------- evidenced by the client's--------
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. decreased Hct and Hgb levels
- C. ESR level
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- E. Anemia evidenced by the client's
- F. Gout evidenced
- G. decreased WBC count
Correct Answer: D,G
Rationale: Decreased WBC count and elevated ESR suggest systemic lupus erythematosus.
A nurse is developing a nutritional care plan for a client who has COPD and severe dyspnea.
Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Offer the client three large meals each day
- B. Provide small, frequent meals to reduce fatigue and improve intake.
- C. Encourage the client to drink fluids immediately before or after meals to prevent early satiety.
- D. Offer high-calorie, nutrient-dense foods to support weight maintenance.
- E. Monitor the client's weight regularly to assess nutritional status.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide small, frequent meals to reduce fatigue and improve intake. This option is the most appropriate because small, frequent meals can help prevent fatigue and improve nutrient intake by ensuring a steady supply of energy throughout the day. Offering three large meals (option A) may overwhelm the client and lead to fatigue. Encouraging fluid intake before or after meals (option C) may cause early satiety and reduce food intake. Offering high-calorie, nutrient-dense foods (option D) can be beneficial, but the frequency of meals is more crucial in this scenario. Monitoring weight (option E) is important but does not directly address the issue of fatigue and intake.
A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a different language than the nurse and is using an interpreter.
Which action should the nurse take when working with the interpreter?
- A. Speak in a normal voice at a natural pace.
- B. Use medical jargon to ensure accuracy.
- C. Speak directly to the interpreter instead of the client.
- D. Ask the client to respond only with 'yes' or 'no' answers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Speak in a normal voice at a natural pace. This is important because speaking clearly and at a natural pace allows the interpreter to accurately convey the message without missing any information. Using a normal voice also helps maintain a respectful and professional tone during communication.
Choice B is incorrect because using medical jargon may confuse the interpreter and lead to miscommunication. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should always address the client directly to establish trust and rapport. Choice D is incorrect as it restricts the client's ability to express themselves fully.
A nurse is assessing a client who has type one diabetes myelitis and was administered insulin lispro 1 hour ago.
Which of the following manifestations indicates that the client might be experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Confusion
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Frequent urination
- D. Flushed skin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Confusion. Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion due to the brain not receiving enough glucose for energy. Increased thirst and frequent urination are more indicative of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels). Flushed skin is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has placenta previa.
Which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Spotting
- B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
- C. Soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus
- D. Fundal height greater than expected for gestational age
- E. Fetal heart rate within normal limits unless significant blood loss occurs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This finding is indicative of placenta previa, a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix. The bright red color indicates fresh bleeding. Spotting (choice A) is more commonly associated with implantation bleeding in early pregnancy. A soft, relaxed, and non-tender uterus (choice C) is not specific to any particular condition. A fundal height greater than expected for gestational age (choice D) could indicate fetal macrosomia or polyhydramnios, but it is not related to the scenario described. While fetal heart rate within normal limits (choice E) is important, it is not the most relevant finding in this case.