A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next appointment with his physician. Because he is asymptomatic, he thinks it is all right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is likely to happen to this patient?
- A. He will go into adrenal crisis.
- B. He will go into thyroid storm.
- C. His autoimmune disease will go into remission.
- D. Nothing; it is appropriate to stop the medication for 3 days.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: He will go into adrenal crisis.
Rationale:
1. Glucocorticoids suppress the body's natural production of cortisol.
2. Abruptly stopping high-dose glucocorticoid therapy can lead to adrenal insufficiency.
3. Adrenal crisis can result in symptoms like weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and potentially life-threatening consequences.
4. This patient, being on high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, is at risk for adrenal crisis if he abruptly stops the medication.
Summary:
B: Thyroid storm is not related to abruptly stopping glucocorticoid therapy.
C: Autoimmune disease remission is unlikely to occur within 3 days of stopping medication.
D: It is not appropriate to stop high-dose glucocorticoid therapy abruptly, as it can lead to adverse effects like adrenal crisis.
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The patient is in need of immediate hemodialysis, but has no vascular access. The nurse prepares the patient for insertion of
- A. a percutaneous catheter at the bedside.
- B. a percutaneous tunneled catheter at the bedside.
- C. an arteriovenous fistula.
- D. an arteriovenous graft.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. In this urgent situation, a percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside to provide immediate vascular access for hemodialysis. This option allows for rapid initiation of treatment without the need for surgical placement or waiting for a more permanent access like an arteriovenous fistula or graft.
Incorrect Choices:
B: A percutaneous tunneled catheter may require more time for insertion due to tunneling and may not be suitable for immediate use.
C: An arteriovenous fistula is a more permanent access created surgically and requires time to mature before being used for hemodialysis.
D: An arteriovenous graft is also a surgical option that requires time to heal and mature before being used for hemodialysis.
The nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a head trauma following a fall. The patient’s heart rate is 112 beats/min and blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. The patient has poor skin turgor and dry mucous membranes. The patient is confused and restless. The following laboratory values are reported: serum sodium is 115 mEq/L; blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 50 mg/dL; and creatinine 8 mg/dL. The findings are consistent with which disorder?
- A. Cerebral salt wasting
- B. Diabetes insipidus
- C. Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone
- D. Thyroid storm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cerebral salt wasting. This is indicated by the low serum sodium level (115 mEq/L), which can occur in patients with head trauma and lead to excessive sodium loss through the kidneys. This results in hypovolemia, leading to low blood pressure and tachycardia. The elevated BUN (50 mg/dL) and creatinine (8 mg/dL) levels suggest dehydration and renal impairment due to volume depletion. The patient's poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, confusion, and restlessness further support the diagnosis of cerebral salt wasting.
Summary:
B: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and thirst due to insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This patient's symptoms are not consistent with diabetes insipidus.
C: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of ADH, leading to water retention and
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient’s urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has:
- A. acute kidney injury from a prerenal condition.
- B. acute kidney injury from postrenal obstruction.
- C. intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis.
- D. a urinary tract infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicates damage to the renal tubules, which is characteristic of acute tubular necrosis. This condition is a type of intrarenal disease where there is direct damage to the kidney tubules, leading to decreased urinary output and symptoms like malaise and fatigue. Prerenal and postrenal conditions do not typically present with granular casts and hematuria, making choices A and B incorrect. Urinary tract infection is also unlikely to cause the specific findings seen in this case, ruling out choice D. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate based on the urinalysis results and clinical presentation.
Factors associated with the development of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Heredity
- B. Medications
- C. Meningitis
- D. Pituitary tumors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heredity. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can be inherited as a genetic condition. The mutation in genes responsible for regulating water balance in the kidneys can lead to this disorder. Other choices are incorrect: B: Medications like lithium can cause acquired nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, not its development. C: Meningitis is an inflammatory condition that does not directly relate to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. D: Pituitary tumors are associated with central diabetes insipidus, not nephrogenic.
A patient with a history of type 1 diabetes and an eating disorder is found unconscious. In the emergency department, the following lab values are obtained: Glucose: 648 mg/dL pH: 88 P CO : 20 mm Hg a 2 P O : 95 mm Hg a 2 HCO ¯: undetectable Anion gap: >31 Na+: 127 mEq/L K+: 5 mEq/L Creatinine: 8 mg/dL After the patient’s airway and ventilation have been established, the next priority for this patient is:
- A. administration of a 1-L normal saline fluid bolus.
- B. administration of 0.1 unit of regular insulin IV push followed by an insulin infusion.
- C. administration of 20 mEq KCl in 100 mL.
- D. IV push administration of 1 amp of sodium bicarbonate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: administration of a 1-L normal saline fluid bolus. In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to the extremely high glucose levels, low bicarbonate, and anion gap metabolic acidosis. The priority is to correct the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through fluid resuscitation with normal saline to improve perfusion and reverse the metabolic derangements. Options B, C, and D do not address the immediate need for volume resuscitation and correction of dehydration. Administering insulin or potassium without first addressing the fluid deficit could lead to further complications. Sodium bicarbonate is not recommended in DKA as it can worsen acidosis and has not been shown to improve outcomes.