Nokea
The critical care nurse knows that in critically ill patients, renal dysfunction
- A. is a very rare problem.
- B. affects nearly two thirds of patients.
- C. has a low mortality rate once renal replacement therapy has been initiated.
- D. has little effect on morbidity, mortality, or quality of life.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because renal dysfunction is a common issue in critically ill patients due to factors like sepsis or hypoperfusion. This affects nearly two thirds of patients, leading to potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as renal dysfunction is common, not rare. Choice C is incorrect as mortality rates can still be high even with renal replacement therapy. Choice D is incorrect as renal dysfunction can significantly impact morbidity, mortality, and quality of life in critically ill patients.
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The patient is in need of immediate hemodialysis, but has no vascular access. The nurse prepares the patient for insertion of
- A. a percutaneous catheter at the bedside.
- B. a percutaneous tunneled catheter at the bedside.
- C. an arteriovenous fistula.
- D. an arteriovenous graft.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. In this urgent situation, a percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside to provide immediate vascular access for hemodialysis. This option allows for rapid initiation of treatment without the need for surgical placement or waiting for a more permanent access like an arteriovenous fistula or graft.
Incorrect Choices:
B: A percutaneous tunneled catheter may require more time for insertion due to tunneling and may not be suitable for immediate use.
C: An arteriovenous fistula is a more permanent access created surgically and requires time to mature before being used for hemodialysis.
D: An arteriovenous graft is also a surgical option that requires time to heal and mature before being used for hemodialysis.
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient’s urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has:
- A. acute kidney injury from a prerenal condition.
- B. acute kidney injury from postrenal obstruction.
- C. intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis.
- D. a urinary tract infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicates damage to the renal tubules, which is characteristic of acute tubular necrosis. This condition is a type of intrarenal disease where there is direct damage to the kidney tubules, leading to decreased urinary output and symptoms like malaise and fatigue. Prerenal and postrenal conditions do not typically present with granular casts and hematuria, making choices A and B incorrect. Urinary tract infection is also unlikely to cause the specific findings seen in this case, ruling out choice D. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate based on the urinalysis results and clinical presentation.
Factors associated with the development of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Heredity
- B. Medications
- C. Meningitis
- D. Pituitary tumors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heredity. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can be inherited as a genetic condition. The mutation in genes responsible for regulating water balance in the kidneys can lead to this disorder. Other choices are incorrect: B: Medications like lithium can cause acquired nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, not its development. C: Meningitis is an inflammatory condition that does not directly relate to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. D: Pituitary tumors are associated with central diabetes insipidus, not nephrogenic.
In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, when is an intravenous (IV) solution that contains dextrose started?
- A. Never; normal saline is the only appropriate solution in diabetes management
- B. When the blood sugar reaches 70 mg/dL
- C. When the blood sugar reaches 150 mg/dL
- D. When the blood glucose reaches 250 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In diabetic emergencies, starting IV dextrose at 250 mg/dL prevents hypoglycemia while resolving ketoacidosis. Below 250 mg/dL, the body can use endogenous glucose, so IV dextrose is not necessary.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Normal saline may be used for initial fluid resuscitation but does not address the need for glucose.
B: Incorrect. Starting dextrose at 70 mg/dL may lead to unnecessary hyperglycemia and complications.
C: Incorrect. Waiting until 150 mg/dL delays the provision of necessary glucose for metabolic functions.
A patient presents to the emergency department with suspected thyroid storm. The nurse should be alert to which of the following cardiac rhythms while providing care to this patient?
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Idioventricular rhythm
- C. Junctional rhythm
- D. Sinus bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial fibrillation. In thyroid storm, excess thyroid hormone levels can lead to increased sympathetic activity, causing tachycardia and arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is common in thyroid storm due to the hypermetabolic state and increased risk of atrial arrhythmias. Other choices are incorrect: B (Idioventricular rhythm) is not typically associated with thyroid storm, C (Junctional rhythm) is less likely since atrial arrhythmias are more common, and D (Sinus bradycardia) is unlikely due to the hypermetabolic state causing tachycardia.