Nokea
The nurse is educating a male patient on how a vasectomy works. What is the best explanation for this procedure?
- A. The procedure blocks the sperm from entering into the semen and being ejaculated.
- B. The procedure removes the testicle so that sperm are not made.
- C. The tube that carries seminal fluid is blocked, causing no semen to be ejaculated.
- D. The procedure kills all sperm so they are unable to make it to the ovulated egg.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A vasectomy involves blocking or cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm from being ejaculated with semen, making it an effective method of contraception. Choice B is incorrect because the testicles are not removed during a vasectomy, only the vas deferens is altered. Choice C is incorrect because seminal fluid is still produced, but sperm are prevented from entering it. Choice D is incorrect because sperm are not killed, but rather prevented from mixing with semen.
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What tion in the FHR that is abrupt and appears to be does the nurse inform this group that they are at in the shape of a W. What is the most likely cause highest risk for? of this?
- A. Sexually transmitted diseases
- B. Compression of the fetal head
- C. Uterine cancer
- D. Compression of the umbilical cord
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An abnormality in the FHR that is abrupt and appears to be in the shape of a "W" is often indicative of variable decelerations. Variable decelerations typically occur due to compression of the umbilical cord, leading to a temporary decrease in oxygen supply to the fetus. It is important for the nurse to inform this group that they are at the highest risk for compression of the umbilical cord as this can result in fetal distress and potentially lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed.
A pregnant client reports frequent urination and lower abdominal pressure at 36 weeks. What should the nurse explain?
- A. This is a sign of preterm labor.
- B. This indicates urinary tract infection.
- C. This is common due to fetal descent.
- D. This is caused by Braxton Hicks contractions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: As the fetus descends into the pelvis (lightening), increased pressure on the bladder causes frequent urination.
A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Minimal arm recoil
- B. Popliteal angle of less than 90
- C. Creases over the entire sole
- D. Sparse lanugo
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation is usually characterized by hip flexion posturing and a popliteal angle of less than 90 degrees. The popliteal angle is the angle at the back of the knee joint when the leg is flexed, and a value of less than 90 degrees is commonly seen in preterm newborns due to their muscle tone immaturity. This finding is consistent with the developmental stage of a preterm infant at 32 weeks gestation.
What does the nurse say about labor beginning to the laboring person who has studied Lamaze?
- A. We should walk in the hallways to get your labor started.â€
- B. Let's turn the lights down and get you into a comfortable position with your partner next to you.â€
- C. I bet you are ready for the Pitocin to get started to get your baby here.â€
- D. Early labor is the best time for you to come to the hospital.â€
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lamaze emphasizes comfort and partner support, aligning with creating a calm environment for labor.
What is the initial action for a mother experiencing severe vaginal bleeding during labor?
- A. Monitor vital signs and provide IV fluids
- B. Position the mother on her left side
- C. Administer oxygen at 10L/min via mask
- D. Prepare for an immediate cesarean section
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering oxygen improves maternal and fetal oxygenation during significant bleeding.