Nokea
A woman has been in labor for 16 hours. Her cervix is dilated
- A. The fetal presenting part is not engage
- B. The nurse would expect which malpresentation
- C. CPD (prevents presenting part form becoming engage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If a woman has been in labor for 16 hours and her cervix is not dilated, it suggests that the fetal presenting part is not engaged. Engagement refers to the descent of the fetal presenting part (usually the head) into the pelvis. When the presenting part is not engaged, it may lead to a prolonged labor as the fetus needs to descend further for labor to progress effectively. This can result in slower cervical dilation and may require interventions to help facilitate engagement, such as position changes or use of gravity-assisted techniques.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with placenta previa. Which findings should the nurse expect to note?
- A. Uterine rigidity.
- B. Severe abdominal pain.
- C. Bright red vaginal bleeding.
- D. Soft, relaxed, nontender uterus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa presents as painless bright red bleeding and a soft, non-tender uterus.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is
- A. Maternal hyperglycemia 1 day postcesarean birth. What assessment data
- B. FHR, early decelerations would indicate infection? Select all that apply.
- C. FHR, late decelerations
- D. Increased pulse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maternal hyperglycemia 1 day post-cesarean birth can indicate infection. Hyperglycemia can impair immune function and make the body more susceptible to infections.
A woman has been having contractions since 4am this morning. At 8am her cervix dilated 5cm. Contractions are frequent, mild to moderate in intensity. CPD has been ruled out. After giving her sedation so she can rest, what would anticipate preparing her for?
- A. oxytocin induction
- B. Amnioinfusion
- C. c/s
- D. increased IV infusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes a woman in active labor with frequent, mild to moderate contractions and significant cervical dilation. If cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) has been ruled out and the progress of labor is slow despite sufficient dilation and descent of the fetus, it may indicate cephalopelvic disproportion, failure to progress, or other complications that could necessitate a cesarean section (c/s). In this case, providing sedation to allow for rest suggests that the medical team is considering the possibility of further intervention, such as a c/s, if the labor does not progress effectively despite sufficient dilation. Therefore, preparing the woman for a c/s would be the anticipated next step in her care.
What emergency contraception has the best efficacy for prevention of pregnancy?
- A. Plan B
- B. Yuzpe
- C. copper IUC
- D. progesterone-only EC
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Copper intrauterine devices (IUDs) have the best efficacy for prevention of pregnancy among emergency contraception options. Copper IUDs are over 99% effective when used as emergency contraception, making them more reliable than other methods like Plan B, Yuzpe, or progesterone-only EC. This high efficacy is due to the mechanism of action of copper IUDs, which prevent fertilization and implantation of the fertilized egg. Additionally, once inserted, a copper IUD can continue to provide ongoing contraception for up to 10 years, making it a long-term contraceptive option as well.
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports regular uterine contractions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage ambulation to relieve discomfort.
- B. Perform a sterile vaginal examination.
- C. Assess fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.
- D. Administer an analgesic as prescribed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing fetal heart rate and contraction pattern is crucial to evaluate for preterm labor.