Nokea
The nurse is educating a male patient on how a vasectomy works. What is the best explanation for this procedure?
- A. The procedure blocks the sperm from entering into the semen and being ejaculated.
- B. The procedure removes the testicle so that sperm are not made.
- C. The tube that carries seminal fluid is blocked, causing no semen to be ejaculated.
- D. The procedure kills all sperm so they are unable to make it to the ovulated egg.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A vasectomy involves blocking or cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm from being ejaculated with semen, making it an effective method of contraception. Choice B is incorrect because the testicles are not removed during a vasectomy, only the vas deferens is altered. Choice C is incorrect because seminal fluid is still produced, but sperm are prevented from entering it. Choice D is incorrect because sperm are not killed, but rather prevented from mixing with semen.
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The nurse is teaching a client about postpartum depression. What statement indicates understanding?
- A. It’s normal to feel hopeless for several weeks.
- B. Postpartum depression only occurs in first-time mothers.
- C. I should seek help if I feel disconnected from my baby.
- D. It is caused by a lack of support from family.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Feeling disconnected from the baby is a common symptom of postpartum depression and should prompt seeking help.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?
- A. Contraction frequency every 3 min
- B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate with moderate
- D. variability Fetal heart rate of 118/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prolonged contractions lasting more than 90-120 seconds may reduce placental perfusion and oxygenation to the fetus, leading to fetal distress. This can result in fetal hypoxia and compromise. Therefore, if the contraction duration reaches 100 seconds, it is an indication for the nurse to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to the fetus. Monitoring for appropriate contraction duration is crucial to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during labor. While contraction frequency every 3 minutes, a fetal heart rate with moderate variability, and a fetal heart rate of 118/min can be normal findings during labor, a prolonged contraction duration is a concerning sign that requires immediate intervention.
A pregnant client reports frequent urination and lower abdominal pressure at 36 weeks. What should the nurse explain?
- A. This is a sign of preterm labor.
- B. This indicates urinary tract infection.
- C. This is common due to fetal descent.
- D. This is caused by Braxton Hicks contractions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: As the fetus descends into the pelvis (lightening), increased pressure on the bladder causes frequent urination.
the nurse knows that management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides are for a client with this condition should be aware that which of the following is the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief dysmenorrhea? Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is:
- A. Acetaminophen.
- B. Oral contraceptives (OCPs). c.Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
- C. Aspirin
- D. ampicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are considered the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. They work by reducing the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for causing uterine contractions and pain. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen, naproxen, and mefenamic acid are commonly used to alleviate menstrual cramps. Acetaminophen may also provide pain relief, but it does not have the anti-inflammatory properties of NSAIDs. Oral contraceptives (OCPs) can help regulate menstrual cycles and reduce pain in some individuals, but they are not the first line of treatment for immediate pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. Aspirin, while an NSAID, is not typically recommended for menstrual pain relief due to its potential side effects on blood clotting and gastrointestinal irritation.
What is the initial action for a mother experiencing severe vaginal bleeding during labor?
- A. Monitor vital signs and provide IV fluids
- B. Position the mother on her left side
- C. Administer oxygen at 10L/min via mask
- D. Prepare for an immediate cesarean section
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering oxygen improves maternal and fetal oxygenation during significant bleeding.