Nokea
A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?
- A. Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine
- B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
- C. Computed tomography with contrast solution
- D. Administration of nebulized bronchodilators
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient.
Incorrect choices:
A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans.
B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis.
D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil
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A patient got a sliver of glass in his eye when a glass container at work fell and shattered. The glass had to be surgically removed and the patient is about to be discharged home. The patient asks the nurse for a topical anesthetic for the pain in his eye. What should the nurse respond?
- A. Overuse of these drops could soften your cornea and damage your eye.
- B. You could lose the peripheral vision in your eye if you used these drops too much.
- C. Im sorry, this medication is considered a controlled substance and patients cannot take it home.
- D. I know these drops will make your eye feel better, but I cant let you take them home.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Overuse of topical anesthetics can soften the cornea and damage the eye. Topical anesthetics numb the eye, masking pain and potentially leading to overuse. This can prevent the patient from recognizing potential issues like infection or further injury. Additionally, prolonged use can interfere with the cornea's ability to heal properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risks associated with using topical anesthetics in the eye. Option B focuses on peripheral vision loss, which is not a direct consequence of using topical anesthetics. Choice C mentions controlled substances, which is not relevant to the situation. Option D acknowledges the patient's request but does not educate the patient on the potential harm of overusing topical anesthetics.
When planning discharge teaching with a patient who has undergone a total mastectomy with axillary dissection, the nurse knows to instruct the patient that she should report what sign or symptom to the physician immediately?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Temperature greater than 98.5F
- C. Sudden cessation of output from the drainage device
- D. Gradual decline in output from the drain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sudden cessation of output from the drainage device. This is crucial because it can indicate a potential complication like a blocked drain or infection, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent further issues. Other choices like fatigue (A) are common after surgery but not urgent. Temperature elevation (B) may indicate infection but is not as critical as sudden cessation of drainage. Gradual decline in output (D) is expected as the drainage decreases over time, so it doesn't require immediate reporting.
A patient presents at the ED after receiving a chemical burn to the eye. What would be the nurses initial intervention for this patient?
- A. Generously flush the affected eye with a dilute antibiotic solution.
- B. Generously flush the affected eye with normal saline or water.
- C. Apply a patch to the affected eye.
- D. Apply direct pressure to the affected eye.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a chemical burn to the eye is to generously flush the affected eye with normal saline or water. Flushing helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Antibiotic solution (choice A) is not the first intervention as the priority is to remove the chemical. Applying a patch (choice C) can trap the chemical against the eye, worsening the injury. Applying direct pressure (choice D) is not appropriate and can cause additional harm. Flushing with normal saline or water is the most effective and safest initial intervention to minimize damage from a chemical burn to the eye.
When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process?
- A. Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall
- B. Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen
- C. Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue
- D. Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue. Adenomyosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows into the muscular wall of the uterus, causing symptoms like heavy menstrual bleeding and severe cramping. This process results in inflammation, thickening of the uterine wall, and can lead to enlargement of the uterus.
Choice A: Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the vaginal wall.
Choice B: Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen is incorrect because although estrogen can contribute to the growth of endometrial tissue, it is not the primary pathophysiologic process in adenomyosis.
Choice D: Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the growth of tumors, but rather the infiltration of endometrial tissue into the uterine muscle.
A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?
- A. For some patients, these recurrent infections constitute an age-related physiologic change.
- B. The patient would benefit from a temporary mobility restriction to facilitate healing.
- C. The patient needs to be assessed for nasopharyngeal cancer.
- D. Blood cultures should be drawn to rule out a systemic infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections.
Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function.
Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media.
Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age.
Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.