Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor the client for?
- A. Prostephobia
- B. Tireibus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Tathyramda
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polyuria. Gentamicin is an antibiotic known to potentially cause kidney damage, leading to impaired kidney function and decreased urine output. Therefore, monitoring for polyuria (excessive urine output) is crucial to assess the client's renal function. Prostephobia, Tireibus, and Tathyramda are not known side effects or complications associated with gentamicin use. Prostephobia is not a medical term, and Tireibus and Tathyramda are not relevant to gentamicin therapy. The nurse should focus on monitoring the client for signs of kidney damage, such as changes in urine output, in this scenario.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is assessing a client who reports taking over-the-counter antacids. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypercalcemia?
- A. Constipation
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Positive Trousseau's sign
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation. Hypercalcemia can result from excessive intake of antacids containing calcium carbonate. High levels of calcium in the blood can lead to constipation due to its inhibitory effect on smooth muscle contraction in the intestinal tract. Decreased urine output (choice B) is more indicative of dehydration or renal issues. Positive Trousseau's sign (choice C) is associated with hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Headache (choice D) is a nonspecific symptom and not a typical manifestation of hypercalcemia.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has sinusitis and a new prescription for cefuroxime. Which of the following client information is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. The client has a BUN of 18 mg/dL
- B. The client takes an aspirin daily
- C. The client has a history of a severe penicillin allergy
- D. The client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The client has a history of a severe penicillin allergy. This is the priority for the nurse to report because cefuroxime belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics, which has a cross-reactivity with penicillins. Individuals with a history of severe penicillin allergy are at an increased risk of also being allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime. This can lead to potentially life-threatening allergic reactions. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to avoid prescribing a medication that could harm the client.
Choice A (BUN of 18 mg/dL) is not directly related to the prescription of cefuroxime for sinusitis. Choice B (client takes an aspirin daily) is important but not as critical as the potential allergic reaction to cefuroxime. Choice D (client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime) is relevant but does not pose an
Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication?
- A. The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal.
- B. You can experience vivid nightmares.
- C. You may notice your urine becomes lighter in color.
- D. Consumption of a high protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication.
- E. You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking the medication with a meal can help reduce nausea. This statement is important to ensure client compliance and improve medication tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as vivid nightmares are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as urine color change is not relevant to this medication. Choice D is incorrect as high protein meals do not affect medication effectiveness. Choice E is incorrect as an increase in involuntary movements is not expected with this medication.
A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended-release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy.
- B. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
- C. You may crush the medication and mix it with applesauce.
- D. You should take the medication in the morning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy. This is important because lovastatin, a statin medication, can potentially cause liver damage. Liver function tests are necessary to monitor for any signs of liver toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between lovastatin and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as lovastatin extended-release should not be crushed as it may affect its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific time of the day required to take lovastatin.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following routes of administration should the nurse use?
- A. Subcutaneous
- B. Intravenous
- C. Central venous access device
- D. Midline catheter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central venous access device. TPN is a highly concentrated solution that provides all the nutrients a person needs intravenously. A central venous access device allows for the infusion of TPN into a large central vein, such as the superior vena cava, ensuring immediate access to the bloodstream for rapid absorption. Using other routes like subcutaneous (A), intravenous (B), or midline catheter (D) may not be suitable due to the high osmolarity of TPN, which can cause irritation and damage to smaller veins. Therefore, a central venous access device is the most appropriate and safe route for administering TPN.