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A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of schizophrenia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Levodopa
- B. Baclofen
- C. Fenofibrate
- D. Risperidone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risperidone. Risperidone is an antipsychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia by helping to manage symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Levodopa (A) is used for Parkinson's disease, Baclofen (B) is a muscle relaxant, and Fenofibrate (C) is used to lower cholesterol. Administering any of these medications to a client with schizophrenia would not address their symptoms effectively.
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A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin 4 units and NPH insulin 10 units subcutaneously to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Inject 10 units of air into the NPH insulin vial.
- B. Draw up 10 units from the NPH insulin vial.
- C. Inject 4 units of air into the regular insulin vial.
- D. Draw up 4 units from the regular insulin vial.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inject 4 units of air into the regular insulin vial. This action is done to prevent negative pressure in the vial, making it easier to withdraw the correct dose of insulin. By injecting air first, the nurse ensures that the exact amount of insulin can be withdrawn accurately without causing any damage to the vial or affecting the dose.
Choice A is incorrect as injecting air into the NPH insulin vial is not necessary before drawing up the insulin. Choice B is incorrect as drawing up the NPH insulin before preparing the regular insulin would be out of sequence. Choice D is incorrect as drawing up the regular insulin before injecting air into the vial could lead to difficulty in withdrawing the correct dose.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of a 1-year-old client following the administration of the measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine (MMR). Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the parents to report to the provider?
- A. Glandular swelling around the jaw
- B. Redness around the injection site
- C. Temperature 37.3° C (99.2° F)
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shortness of breath. Shortness of breath can indicate a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, which is a rare but serious adverse effect of the MMR vaccine. It is crucial to report this immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and management to prevent any complications.
A: Glandular swelling around the jaw is a common and mild side effect of the MMR vaccine, typically resolving on its own and not requiring immediate medical attention.
B: Redness around the injection site is a common and expected reaction to the vaccine, usually resolving without intervention.
C: A temperature of 37.3° C (99.2° F) is a low-grade fever, which can be a normal response to vaccination and typically does not require urgent medical attention.
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who was admitted for diazepam toxicity. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Protamine sulfate
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flumazenil. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine toxicity, such as diazepam. Administering Flumazenil in this case can help reverse the sedative and respiratory depressive effects of diazepam.
Incorrect choices:
A: Vitamin K is used for blood clotting disorders, not for benzodiazepine toxicity.
B: Calcium gluconate is used for treating calcium deficiencies, not for benzodiazepine toxicity.
C: Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not benzodiazepines.
In summary, Flumazenil is the appropriate choice to counter diazepam toxicity by antagonizing its effects on benzodiazepine receptors, while the other options are unrelated to managing benzodiazepine toxicity.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who takes furosemide daily for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- B. Thyroxine
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum aspartate aminotransferase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (A) is not relevant for assessing furosemide therapy. Thyroxine (B) is a thyroid hormone and not directly affected by furosemide. Serum aspartate aminotransferase (D) is a liver enzyme and not specifically impacted by furosemide administration.
A nurse is caring for a client who has Graves' disease and is to start therapy with propylthiouracil. The nurse should expect which of the following outcomes?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Decreased WBC count
- C. Increased Hgb
- D. Increased blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased heart rate. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication used to treat hyperthyroidism in conditions like Graves' disease. It works by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Since hyperthyroidism can cause an increased heart rate due to the excess thyroid hormones, the expected outcome of propylthiouracil therapy is a decreased heart rate as it helps normalize thyroid hormone levels. The other choices are incorrect because propylthiouracil does not directly affect WBC count (B), Hgb levels (C), or blood pressure (D) in the context of treating hyperthyroidism.