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In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
- A. it is not possible to determine the GFR.
- B. the BUN may be used to determine renal function.
- C. an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio can be used.
- D. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because if a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate the GFR. This is typically done using the patient's serum creatinine level, age, sex, and race. It is a validated method when direct measurement is not feasible.
A: Incorrect. It is still possible to estimate GFR using formulas when 24-hour urine collection is not possible.
B: Incorrect. BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function.
C: Incorrect. BUN/Creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by other factors.
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A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is being transitioned from an infusion of intravenous (IV) regular insulin to an intensive insulin therapy regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart. How should the nurse manage this transition in insulin delivery?
- A. Administer the insulin glargine and continue the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours.
- B. Administer the insulin glargine and discontinue the IV infusion in several hours.
- C. Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the insulin aspart with the next meal.
- D. Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime. This is the correct approach because insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night. By administering it at bedtime, it mimics the basal insulin secretion in a person without diabetes. This helps maintain stable blood sugar levels overnight.
Choice A is incorrect because continuing the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours alongside insulin glargine is unnecessary and may lead to insulin overdose. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV infusion in several hours without administering the long-acting insulin can lead to inadequate insulin coverage. Choice C is incorrect because insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given with meals, not as a basal insulin replacement at bedtime.
The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. Blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; the patient has not voided in 8 hours, and the bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates a prescription for “stat” administration of
- A. a blood transfusion.
- B. fluid replacement with 0.45% saline.
- C. infusion of an inotropic agent.
- D. an antiemetic.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's symptoms suggest dehydration and hypovolemia, indicated by low blood pressure, elevated heart rate, and lack of urine output. Fluid replacement with isotonic saline would help restore intravascular volume and improve blood pressure. Blood transfusion (A) is not indicated without evidence of significant blood loss. Inotropic agents (C) are used to improve cardiac function, which is not the primary issue in this case. Antiemetics (D) may help with nausea and vomiting but do not address the underlying cause of hypovolemia.
The patient is in the critical care unit and will receive dialysis this morning. The nurse will (Select all that apply.)
- A. evaluate morning laboratory results and report abnormal results.
- B. administer the patient’s antihypertensive medications.
- C. assess the dialysis access site and report abnormalities.
- D. weigh the patient to monitor fluid status.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By evaluating the morning laboratory results and reporting abnormal results, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety during dialysis by addressing any concerning findings promptly. This step is crucial in monitoring the patient's condition and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
Incorrect choices:
B: Administering antihypertensive medications is not directly related to the patient's dialysis procedure and does not address the immediate needs of the patient in the critical care unit.
C: While assessing the dialysis access site is important, reporting abnormalities alone may not be sufficient without a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's laboratory results.
D: Weighing the patient to monitor fluid status is important in the context of dialysis, but it is not as critical as evaluating laboratory results for immediate intervention.
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess the patient’s hearing.
- B. Assess the patient’s lungs.
- C. Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered.
- D. Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications.
A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury.
D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
An elderly female patient has presented to the emergency department with altered mental status, hypothermia, and clinical signs of heart failure. Myxedema is suspected. Which of the following laboratory findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone
- B. Elevated cortisol levels
- C. Elevated T and T 3 4
- D. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Elevated T and T3/T4 levels are indicative of primary hypothyroidism, such as myxedema. In this case, the patient presents with classic symptoms of hypothyroidism, including altered mental status, hypothermia, and heart failure. Elevated T3/T4 levels confirm the diagnosis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone is associated with adrenal disorders, not hypothyroidism.
B: Elevated cortisol levels suggest Cushing's syndrome, a condition of excess cortisol production, not hypothyroidism.
D: Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone is seen in primary hypothyroidism, but in myxedema, the issue is not with TSH but with T3/T4 levels.