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A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Restrict hourly fluid intake to 150 mL/hr.
- B. Have calcium gluconate readily available.
- C. Assess deep tendon reflexes every 6 hr.
- D. Monitor intake and output every 4 hr.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have calcium gluconate readily available. Magnesium sulfate IV can cause toxicity leading to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the muscles. Having it readily available ensures prompt treatment in case of toxicity.
Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary for preeclampsia and can lead to dehydration. Assessing deep tendon reflexes (C) every 6 hours is important but not as crucial as having the antidote readily available. Monitoring intake and output (D) every 4 hours is important for overall assessment but does not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity.
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complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is at highest risk for developing ---evidenced by the client's ---
- A. Endometritis.
- B. Mastitis.
- C. Postpartum hemorrhage.
- D. Group B streptococcus positive status.
- E. Spontaneous vaginal delivery.
- F. Median episiotomy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, commonly occurring post-delivery.
2. The client's risk for endometritis increases due to factors like prolonged labor, multiple vaginal exams, and retained placental fragments.
3. The client's condition or symptoms may include fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia.
4. The other options (B-F) are not directly related to the highest risk for developing endometritis post-delivery.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is to undergo a nonstress test. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Maintain the client NPO throughout the procedure.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Instruct the client to massage the abdomen to stimulate fetal movement.
- D. Instruct the client to press the provided button each time fetal movement is detected.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Instruct the client to press the provided button each time fetal movement is detected. This action is essential during a nonstress test to track fetal movement and heart rate patterns. By pressing the button each time fetal movement is felt, the nurse can correlate these movements with any changes in the fetal heart rate, providing valuable information about fetal well-being. Maintaining the client NPO (A) is not necessary for a nonstress test. Placing the client in a supine position (B) can reduce blood flow to the fetus and is not recommended. Instructing the client to massage the abdomen (C) may lead to inaccurate test results by artificially stimulating fetal movements.
The nurse should first implement --- and ---
- A. Providing education on medications.
- B. Administering doxycycline.
- C. Administering ceftriaxone.
- D. Administering metronidazole and educating on condom.
- E. Administering metronidazole.
Correct Answer: B, C
Rationale: The correct answer is B, C. The nurse should first implement administering doxycycline and ceftriaxone in the treatment of certain infections like gonorrhea and chlamydia. Administering these antibiotics promptly is crucial to start the treatment process effectively. Providing education on medications (choice A) can follow once the initial treatment is administered. Administering metronidazole alone (choice E) or with educating on condoms (choice D) is not appropriate for the initial treatment of gonorrhea or chlamydia. Administering metronidazole alone would not effectively address these infections.
A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving IV fluid replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate 98/min.
- C. Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr.
- D. Urine negative for ketones.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr. In hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing renal perfusion. A urine output of 280 mL in 8 hours is low, indicating possible renal impairment. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum and receiving IV fluids. Blood pressure of 105/64 mm Hg is acceptable, heart rate of 98/min is slightly elevated but not alarming, and urine negative for ketones indicates adequate fluid replacement.
Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse plan to take? For each potential nursing action, click to specify it the intervention is indicated or contraindicated for the client.
- A. Insert a large bore intravenous catheter.
- B. Assess cervical dilation.
- C. Weigh perineal pads.
- D. Administer methotrexate.
Correct Answer: A, C
Rationale: [1, 0, 1], [0, 1, 0], [0, 0, 0], [0, 0, 1]
Inserting a large bore IV catheter is indicated for rapid fluid resuscitation. Weighing perineal pads helps monitor postpartum hemorrhage. Assessing cervical dilation and administering methotrexate are not appropriate in this scenario.