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A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks gestation who comes to the emergency department for painful bleeding. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor for contractions
- B. Assess pain level
- C. Assess for hemorrhage
- D. Provide emotional support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess for hemorrhage. This is the priority assessment as the client is experiencing painful bleeding, indicating a potential hemorrhage which can be life-threatening. Assessing for hemorrhage will help identify the severity of the situation and guide immediate interventions. Monitoring for contractions (choice A) is important but assessing for hemorrhage takes precedence. Assessing pain level (choice B) is important but addressing the potential hemorrhage is more critical. Providing emotional support (choice D) is important but should come after addressing the urgent medical need of assessing for hemorrhage.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is G1P0 and 36 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 165/110. The physician has ordered hydralazine. The nurse knows she should do which of the following when administering this medication?
- A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees.
- B. Get baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitor frequently during administration.
- C. Administer medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized.
- D. Inform the client that this may cause a positive direct Coombs test result.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Getting baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitoring frequently during administration is crucial because hydralazine is a potent antihypertensive medication that can cause significant drops in blood pressure. Monitoring allows for early detection of hypotension or adverse reactions.
A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is not specific to the administration of hydralazine for pre-eclampsia.
C is incorrect because administering medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized is not a standard protocol for hydralazine administration; it should be given as per physician's orders with appropriate monitoring.
D is incorrect because informing the client about a positive direct Coombs test result is not relevant to the administration of hydralazine; this is more pertinent to medications that can cause hemolytic anemia.
The nurse is caring for a woman who is suspected of having chorioamnionitis. Which of the following are risk factors for chorioamnionitis? Select all that apply.
- A. Changing cat litter
- B. Frequent vaginal examination during labor
- C. Gestational diabetes
- D. Preterm premature rupture of the membranes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): Changing cat litter exposes the woman to Toxoplasma gondii, a parasite associated with chorioamnionitis. It is a known risk factor as the infection can spread to the fetus.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B (Frequent vaginal examination during labor): This does not directly increase the risk of chorioamnionitis.
C (Gestational diabetes): While gestational diabetes can have other complications, it is not a direct risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
D (Preterm premature rupture of the membranes): While this can increase the risk of infection, it is not a specific risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia. Which assessments will be of the highest priority?
- A. Assessing lung sounds
- B. Assessing blood sugar level
- C. Encouraging fluid intake
- D. Assessing for pitting edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing lung sounds. This is of highest priority because magnesium sulfate can lead to respiratory depression. Assessing lung sounds helps monitor for signs of respiratory distress, such as decreased breath sounds or crackles. Assessing blood sugar level (B) is important but not as urgent as respiratory status. Encouraging fluid intake (C) is important for hydration but not as critical as respiratory assessment. Assessing for pitting edema (D) is relevant for monitoring fluid retention but not as immediate as assessing lung sounds for respiratory compromise.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
- A. Make sure to take folic acid
- B. Make an appointment to see her provider in 6 weeks
- C. Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours
- D. Resume all activity in 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Methotrexate is a chemotherapy agent that can be harmful to others if not properly eliminated from the body. Instructing the client to flush the toilet twice after urination for the next 24 hours helps to reduce the risk of exposing others to the medication through urine. This precaution is important to prevent potential harm to others.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Taking folic acid is generally recommended to reduce side effects of methotrexate but is not directly related to the safety of others.
B: While follow-up appointments are important, the immediate safety concern of methotrexate elimination is more critical.
D: Resuming all activity in 48 hours may not be appropriate depending on the individual's response to methotrexate and their recovery process.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe hyperemesis gravidarum. She is 10 weeks gestation and has a 10% weight loss. The client is being admitted for fluid and electrolyte replacement. The nurse is aware it is important to check which deficiency that puts the client at risk for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Thiamine
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thiamine. In severe hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting can lead to thiamine deficiency, increasing the risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy, a neurological disorder. Thiamine is essential for the brain's energy metabolism. Without adequate thiamine, neurological symptoms such as confusion, memory issues, and ataxia can arise. Folic acid (choice A) is important for neural tube development but not directly related to Wernicke's encephalopathy. Vitamin D (choice B) deficiency can lead to various issues but is not associated with Wernicke's encephalopathy. Glucose (choice D) is a source of energy but does not directly influence thiamine deficiency and Wernicke's encephalopathy.