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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
- A. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling.
- B. Amnioinfusion.
- C. Biophysical profile (BPP).
- D. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biophysical profile (BPP). At 41 weeks of gestation, a positive contraction stress test indicates potential placental insufficiency. A BPP assesses fetal well-being by evaluating fetal movement, muscle tone, breathing, amniotic fluid volume, and heart rate reactivity. This test helps determine the need for immediate delivery.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (A) is used to directly sample fetal blood for genetic testing and not for assessing fetal well-being. Amnioinfusion (B) is used to increase amniotic fluid volume during labor and not for evaluating fetal well-being. Chorionic villus sampling (D) is an invasive prenatal diagnostic test for genetic abnormalities and not for assessing fetal well-being.
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A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the newborn is experiencing pain?
- A. Decreased heart rate.
- B. Chin quivering.
- C. Pinpoint pupils.
- D. Slowed respirations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chin quivering. Pain assessment in newborns can be challenging due to their limited ability to communicate. Chin quivering is a common behavioral indicator of pain in newborns. It is a subtle sign of distress and discomfort. Other choices such as decreased heart rate (A), pinpoint pupils (C), and slowed respirations (D) are not reliable indicators of pain in newborns. Decreased heart rate can indicate relaxation, pinpoint pupils are more indicative of opioid use, and slowed respirations might be a sign of sleepiness or relaxation rather than pain.
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is receiving heparin via a continuous IV infusion for thrombophlebitis in their left calf. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer aspirin for pain.
- B. Maintain the client on bed rest.
- C. Massage the affected leg every 12 hr.
- D. Apply cold compresses to the affected calf.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain the client on bed rest. It is essential to maintain the client on bed rest to prevent further complications and to reduce the risk of dislodging the clot. Moving the affected leg could potentially dislodge the clot, leading to serious consequences such as pulmonary embolism. Administering aspirin for pain (choice A) is not appropriate as it can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in a patient receiving heparin. Massaging the affected leg (choice C) can also dislodge the clot and should be avoided. Applying cold compresses (choice D) can potentially exacerbate the situation by causing vasoconstriction and increasing the risk of clot formation.
The nurse should first implement --- and ---
- A. Providing education on medications.
- B. Administering doxycycline.
- C. Administering ceftriaxone.
- D. Administering metronidazole and educating on condom.
- E. Administering metronidazole.
Correct Answer: B, C
Rationale: The correct answer is B, C. The nurse should first implement administering doxycycline and ceftriaxone in the treatment of certain infections like gonorrhea and chlamydia. Administering these antibiotics promptly is crucial to start the treatment process effectively. Providing education on medications (choice A) can follow once the initial treatment is administered. Administering metronidazole alone (choice E) or with educating on condoms (choice D) is not appropriate for the initial treatment of gonorrhea or chlamydia. Administering metronidazole alone would not effectively address these infections.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who was transferred to the nursery 30 min after birth because of mild respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Confirm the newborn's Apgar score.
- B. Verify the newborn's identification.
- C. Administer vitamin K to the newborn.
- D. Determine obstetrical risk factors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify the newborn's identification. This should be done first to ensure the right baby is receiving care. Confirming the identity helps prevent errors in medication administration and procedures. Checking the identification is crucial for patient safety. The other options are not the first priority in this scenario. A: Confirming the Apgar score can wait until after ensuring the correct baby is being cared for. C: Administering vitamin K is important, but verifying identification takes precedence. D: Determining obstetrical risk factors can be done later once the baby's identity is confirmed.
A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is receiving IV fluid replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate 98/min.
- C. Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr.
- D. Urine negative for ketones.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 280 mL within 8 hr. In hyperemesis gravidarum, excessive vomiting leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. Monitoring urine output is crucial for assessing renal perfusion. A urine output of 280 mL in 8 hours is low, indicating possible renal impairment. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum and receiving IV fluids. Blood pressure of 105/64 mm Hg is acceptable, heart rate of 98/min is slightly elevated but not alarming, and urine negative for ketones indicates adequate fluid replacement.