A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an outpatient surgical procedure and reports taking aspirin 81 mg daily, including this morning. The nurse should identify that this places the client at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Uncontrolled bleeding
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Decreased renal perfusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, increasing the risk of uncontrolled bleeding during surgical procedures. By taking aspirin, the client's blood clotting ability is impaired, leading to potential excessive bleeding during and after surgery. This can result in complications such as prolonged bleeding, hematoma formation, and delayed wound healing. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Uncontrolled bleeding.
Summary:
- B: Myocardial infarction is not directly related to taking aspirin; it is actually used to prevent heart attacks.
- C: Respiratory depression is not a common complication associated with aspirin use.
- D: Decreased renal perfusion is not a typical risk of taking aspirin; it primarily affects the cardiovascular system.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking epoetin. An increase in which of the following laboratory values should indicate to the nurse that the therapy is effective?
- A. PT
- B. WBC
- C. Hgb
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hgb (hemoglobin). Epoetin is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production, which should increase hemoglobin levels. Higher hemoglobin levels indicate improved oxygen-carrying capacity and overall effectiveness of the therapy. PT (A), WBC (B), and Platelets (D) are not directly affected by epoetin therapy, so an increase in these values would not be indicative of the medication's effectiveness.
You are seeing a 12-year-old boy in the survivorship program who presented at 2 years old with a desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma. You note the child recently underwent germline genetic testing and was found to have nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. In which gene is the child most likely to have a pathogenic variant?
- A. PTEN
- B. CDKN2A
- C. SUFU
- D. SMARCB1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome is also known as Gorlin syndrome, caused by mutations in SUFU.
2. SUFU gene regulates the Hedgehog signaling pathway, implicated in medulloblastoma development.
3. Desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma is commonly seen in Gorlin syndrome.
4. PTEN is associated with Cowden syndrome, CDKN2A with melanoma, and SMARCB1 with rhabdoid tumors, not typically seen in Gorlin syndrome.
A 13-year-old Hispanic girl is found to have a WBC count of 6,500/mm3 with 40% Auer rod–containing granular blasts that, by flow cytometry, express very bright CD33 but are negative for human leukocyte antigen–DR isotype (HLA-DR). She is oozing blood around her peripheral IV site. Coagulation studies reveal an international normalized ratio (INR) of 3.4, a fibrinogen of 170, and a markedly elevated D-dimer. Marrow aspirate shows nearly 90% blasts with a similar morphology. You send the marrow to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) lab and request STAT testing for the most likely recurrent genetic abnormality based on the clinical presentation. How do you plan to initiate therapy?
- A. Perform a lumbar puncture to determine leukemic involvement, then proceed with induction chemotherapy.
- B. Begin therapy with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support.
- C. Start dexamethasone and hydroxyurea immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support.
- D. Start induction chemotherapy, obtain HLA typing, and start a donor search because of the poor prognosis associated with this leukemic phenotype.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Begin therapy with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support. The patient's presentation is consistent with acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), indicated by the presence of Auer rod-containing blasts, very bright CD33 expression, and coagulopathy (elevated INR, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer). APL is associated with a specific genetic abnormality involving the PML-RARA fusion gene. ATRA is the mainstay of induction therapy for APL as it induces differentiation of leukemic promyelocytes. Aggressive management of coagulopathy is crucial to prevent life-threatening bleeding complications.
Incorrect answers:
A: Performing a lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage as the patient's symptoms and laboratory findings point towards APL, not central nervous system involvement.
C: Dexamethasone and hydroxyurea are not
Mr XY was found to be anemic. During history taking, he informed his doctor that he was a strict vegetarian who did not consume any meat, fish or milk products.
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- C. Defects in erythropoietin production
- D. Calcium-deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin B12 deficiency. As a strict vegetarian who does not consume any meat, fish, or milk products, Mr XY is at risk for Vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal products and is essential for red blood cell production. Anemia can result from Vitamin B12 deficiency, leading to symptoms such as fatigue and weakness. Iron deficiency (A) is also common in vegetarians, but in this case, the focus is on Vitamin B12 due to the exclusion of all animal products. Defects in erythropoietin production (C) are not related to Mr XY's dietary choices. Calcium-deficiency (D) is not directly related to anemia in this scenario.
A 7-year-old boy presents with recent onset of vomiting and lethargy. Blood smear shows increased neutrophils with a left shift and 8% abnormal cells. Bone marrow contains 60% of the same cells. Flow cytometry shows that the cells are TdT–, CD10+, CD19+, CD20+, sIg+. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Burkitt leukemia/lymphoma
- B. B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
- C. T-cell ALL
- D. Hematogones
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Burkitt leukemia/lymphoma. The key features in the case are increased neutrophils with a left shift, presence of abnormal cells in blood and bone marrow, and flow cytometry showing TdT–, CD10+, CD19+, CD20+, sIg+. These findings are consistent with Burkitt leukemia/lymphoma, a highly aggressive B-cell neoplasm. The presence of CD10, CD19, and CD20, along with sIg positivity, points towards a B-cell origin. Additionally, the characteristic translocation t(8;14) involving c-Myc oncogene is commonly seen in Burkitt lymphoma. The absence of TdT expression rules out T-cell ALL (Choice C). Hematogones (Choice D) are normal precursor B-cells found in bone marrow, but they do not typically present with the clinical features described. B-cell ALL (Choice B) lacks the specific features seen in this case