A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prolonged phenylephrine use can cause rebound nasal congestion due to vasoconstrictor overuse.
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The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Relief of heartburn
- C. Reduction of steatorrhea
- D. Absence of abdominal pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status. It is not used to treat abdominal pain or heartburn. Its use could result in weight gain but should not result in weight loss if it is aiding in digestion.
Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
- A. Therapeutic index
- B. Minimum effective concentration
- C. Bioavailability
- D. Ease of titration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bioavailability directly impacts how much drug reaches circulation, a key pharmacokinetic factor, unlike therapeutic index or titration ease .
Candesartan and irbesartan are angiotensin receptor blockers that are used to treat hypertension. The therapeutic dose range for candesartan is 4 to 32 mg, as compared to 75 to 300 mg for irbesartan. which of the following regarding this statement is correct?
- A. Candesartan is more potent than is irbesartan
- B. Candesartan and irbesartan have different efficacy
- C. Candesartan is a non competitive antagonist for irbesartan
- D. Irbesartan is a competitive antagonist for candesartan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lower dose range for candesartan indicates higher potency (lower EC50) compared to irbesartan.
A patient presents to the emergency department with a drug level of 50 units/mL. The half-life of this drug is 1 hour. With this drug, concentrations above 25 units/mL are considered toxic and no more drug is given. How long will it take for the blood level to reach the non-toxic range?
- A. 30 minutes
- B. 1 hour
- C. 2 hours
- D. 3 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. After 1 hour, the serum concentration would be 25 units/mL (50/2) if the body can properly metabolize and excrete the drug. After 2 hours, the serum concentration would be 12.5 units/mL (25/2) and reach the nontoxic range. In 30 minutes the drug level would be 37.5 units/mL, whereas in 3 hours the drug level would be 6.25.
All of the following adverse effects commonly occur in glucocorticoid therapy except:
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Increased risk of infection
- C. Hypotension
- D. Emotional disturbances
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glucocorticoids cause hypertension, not hypotension, due to mineralocorticoid effects and fluid retention.