A nurse is caring for a group of clients. In which of the following scenarios is the nurse acting as a client advocate?
- A. Encouraging a client to take pain medication despite refusal.
- B. Referring a client who has COPD for palliative care services.
- C. Discharging a client early to free up hospital beds.
- D. Withholding information about a new diagnosis to prevent distress.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because referring a client with COPD for palliative care services demonstrates advocating for the client's best interest, ensuring they receive appropriate care to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. This action aligns with the nurse's role as a client advocate by advocating for the client's autonomy and well-being. In contrast, choices A, C, and D do not prioritize the client's best interests or rights. Choice A disregards the client's autonomy by encouraging medication against their wishes. Choice C prioritizes hospital efficiency over the client's needs. Choice D violates the client's right to informed decision-making by withholding essential information. Overall, choice B best exemplifies client advocacy in nursing practice.
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A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who is confused, has a temperature of 40° C (104° F), a BP of 74/52 mm Hg, and a diagnosis of exertional heat stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen using a high-concentration mask.
- B. Give the client cold fluids orally.
- C. Apply a heating pad to prevent shivering.
- D. Encourage the client to walk to promote circulation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen using a high-concentration mask. In exertional heat stroke, the body's ability to regulate temperature is compromised, leading to confusion, high temperature, and low blood pressure. Oxygen therapy helps support oxygenation during heat stress. It takes priority to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent hypoxia, which can worsen the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Giving cold fluids orally can potentially induce shock in a hypotensive client. Applying a heating pad can lead to further increase in body temperature. Encouraging the client to walk can exacerbate heat stress and increase the risk of collapse.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Consume a diet that is high in calories.
- B. Limit fluid intake to prevent mucus production.
- C. Engage in strenuous exercise daily.
- D. Reduce carbohydrate intake to prevent fatigue.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A client with COPD often has increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming a high-calorie diet helps meet these needs. This can prevent malnutrition and promote optimal energy levels. Limiting fluid intake (B) can lead to dehydration and thicker mucus. Strenuous exercise (C) may exacerbate breathing difficulties. Reducing carbohydrate intake (D) can lead to decreased energy levels.
A nurse is teaching a client about self-management of their halo fixator device. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Place a small pillow under the head while lying supine.
- B. Remove the vest for comfort while sleeping.
- C. Apply lotion under the vest to reduce irritation.
- D. Adjust the screws if the device feels loose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Place a small pillow under the head while lying supine. This is important to prevent hyperextension of the neck while lying down, ensuring proper alignment and comfort. Removing the vest (B) compromises stability. Applying lotion (C) can cause skin breakdown. Adjusting screws (D) without proper training can lead to complications.
A nurse is assessing a clients ECG strip and notes an irregular heart rate of 98/min with no clear P waves. Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias should the nurse document?
- A. Sinus bradycardia
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- C. Ventricular tachycardia
- D. First-degree heart block
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the heart rate is irregular and fast (98/min), and there are no clear P waves on the ECG strip, which aligns with the findings in the scenario. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the atria, leading to an irregular heart rate. Sinus bradycardia (A) is characterized by a slow heart rate with normal P waves. Ventricular tachycardia (C) is a fast heart rhythm originating in the ventricles with distinct QRS complexes. First-degree heart block (D) is identified by a prolonged PR interval but should still have clear P waves. Other choices are not relevant. In this case, the absence of clear P waves and irregular heart rate point towards atrial fibrillation as the correct dysrhythmia to document.
A nurse is monitoring a client following a lumbar laminectomy. The client has a drain and indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of a complication of the surgery?
- A. Red-tinged drainage on the dressing
- B. Cloudy urine in the catheter
- C. Clear drainage on the dressings
- D. Mild back pain at the surgical site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear drainage on the dressings. Clear drainage may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication following a lumbar laminectomy. Cerebrospinal fluid is a clear fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, and its leakage can lead to infection and other complications. Red-tinged drainage (choice A) may be expected initially due to surgical trauma. Cloudy urine in the catheter (choice B) is more likely related to urinary tract infection. Mild back pain at the surgical site (choice D) is common after this surgery and does not necessarily indicate a complication.
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