A nurse is collecting data for a client who has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Increased urine ketones.
- B. Increased urine specific gravity.
- C. Decreased hematocrit.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine specific gravity is expected in fluid volume deficit, indicating concentrated urine due to decreased fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.
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A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Osteoarthritis is caused by inflammation that affects both joints and other body tissues.
- B. Osteoarthritis occurs due to the aging process and results in disintegration of cartilage in a joint.
- C. Osteoarthritis is due to loss of calcium in the bones, which can lead to increased risk for bone fractures.
- D. Osteoarthritis happens in several phases when deposits of crystals develop in joints and soft tissues.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease caused by aging and cartilage disintegration, as correctly stated.
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride IV infusion 1000 mL bag at a rate of 200 mL/hr for a client who has rhabdomyolysis. The nurse should expect the IV pump to infuse over how many hours? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. (Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero))
- A. 5 hours
- B. 4 hours
- C. 6 hours
- D. 7 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1000 mL ÷ 200 mL/hr = 5 hours. The infusion will take 5 hours.
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 1 mg PO to a client. The amount available is digoxin 0.5 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. (Do not use a trailing zero))
Correct Answer: 2 tablets
Rationale: 1 mg ÷ 0.5 mg/tablet = 2 tablets. The nurse should administer 2 tablets.
A client who is taking nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection voices a concern to the clinic nurse about voiding brown-colored urine. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Drinking more fluid will prevent your urine from becoming brown.
- B. Brown-colored urine is a harmless side effect of the medication.
- C. The provider will change your medication because your infection is not resolving with nitrofurantoin.
- D. An increase of RBC destruction in your blood can result in brown-colored urine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Brown-colored urine is a harmless side effect of nitrofurantoin due to the medication itself, not indicating harm.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Frothy sputum.
- B. Orthopnea.
- C. Dyspnea.
- D. Peripheral edema.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Peripheral edema is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to blood backup in systemic circulation, causing fluid accumulation in tissues.
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