A nurse is discussing sterilization with a female client. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Tubal ligation involves blocking my fallopian tubes.
- B. Tubal ligation is considered permanent.
- C. Tubal ligation will cause early menopause.
- D. Tubal ligation can be done laparoscopically.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tubal ligation does not cause early menopause, as it only blocks the fallopian tubes and does not affect ovarian hormone production. The other statements are correct, indicating a need for further teaching.
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Four hours after cesarean delivery of a neonate weighing 4,000 g (8 lb, 13 oz), the primiparous client asks, "If I get pregnant again, will I need to have a cesarean?" When responding to the client, the nurse should base the response to the client about vaginal birth after cesarean delivery (VBAC) on which of the following?
- A. VBAC may be possible if the client has not had a classic uterine incision.
- B. A history of rapid labor is a necessary criterion for VBAC.
- C. A low transverse incision contraindicates the possibility for VBAC.
- D. VBAC is not possible because the neonate was large for gestational age.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: VBAC is often possible with a low transverse incision, unlike a classic vertical incision.
A multigravid laboring client has an extensive documented history of drug addiction. Her last reported usage was 5 hours ago. She is 2 cm dilated with contractions every 3 minutes of moderate intensity. The physician orders nalbuphine (Nubain) 15 mg slow I.V. push for pain relief followed by an epidural when the client is 4 cm dilated. Within 10 minutes of receiving the nalbuphine, the client states she thinks she is going to have her baby now. Of the following drugs available at the time of the delivery, which should the nurse avoid using with this client in this situation?
- A. 1% lidocaine (Xylocaine).
- B. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan).
- C. Local anesthetic.
- D. Pudendal block.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with recent opioid use, naloxone (Narcan) could precipitate withdrawal symptoms, which is risky during delivery. Lidocaine, local anesthetics, or pudendal blocks are safe for perineal anesthesia and do not interact with the client's history.
The physician orders ampicillin The dose is 100 mg/kg per dose for a newly admitted neonate. The neonate weighs 1,350 grams. How many milligrams should the nurse administer?
- A. mg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The neonate weighs 1,350 g (1.35 kg). The dose is 100 mg/kg, so 100 mg/kg × 1.35 kg = 135 mg. The nurse should administer 135 mg.
The nurse and a nursing assistant are caring for clients in a birthing center. Which of the following tasks should the nurse delegate to the nursing assistant? Select all that apply.
- A. Removing a Foley catheter from a preeclamptic client.
- B. Assisting an active labor client with breathing and relaxation.
- C. Ambulating a postcesarean client to the bathroom.
- D. Calculating hourly I.V. totals for a preterm labor client.
- E. Intake and output catheterization for culture and sensitivity.
- F. Calling a report of normal findings to the health care provider.
- G. Removing lunch trays and documenting lunch intake.
Correct Answer: C,G
Rationale: Delegating ambulation and lunch tray removal is appropriate for a nursing assistant.
While caring for a neonate delivered at 32 weeks' gestation, the nurse assesses the neonate daily for symptoms of necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Which of the following would alert the nurse to notify the neonatologist?
- A. The presence of $1 \mathrm{~mL}$ of gastric residual before a gavage feeding.
- B. Jaundice appearing on the face and chest.
- C. An increase in bowel peristalsis.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Abdominal distention is a key sign of NEC, indicating potential intestinal compromise.
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